<span>A.5/4 is your answer.
It is not possible for you to have a greater amount of chance than a 100% chance (which will definitely happen).
hope this helps</span>
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
I have answered ur question
Answer:
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Answer:
14/3
Step-by-step explanation:
Simplify the following:
48/6 - 10/3
Hint: | Reduce 48/6 to lowest terms. Start by finding the GCD of 48 and 6.
The gcd of 48 and 6 is 6, so 48/6 = (6×8)/(6×1) = 6/6×8 = 8:
8 - 10/3
Hint: | Put the fractions in 8 - 10/3 over a common denominator.
Put 8 - 10/3 over the common denominator 3. 8 - 10/3 = (3×8)/3 - 10/3:
(3×8)/3 - 10/3
Hint: | Multiply 3 and 8 together.
3×8 = 24:
24/3 - 10/3
Hint: | Subtract the fractions over a common denominator to a single fraction.
24/3 - 10/3 = (24 - 10)/3:
(24 - 10)/3
Hint: | Subtract 10 from 24.
| 2 | 4
- | 1 | 0
| 1 | 4:
Answer: 14/3
Answer:
It's different because the experiment is more accurate as it progresses.
Step-by-step explanation:
You'll notice that the higher the numbers get in the experiment the closer it gets to your solution. The theoretical probability of flipping a coin is about 50% heads and 50% tails, but it doesn't always seem like that in an experiment. The experimental probability from your experimentation so far would be 62% of heads and 38% of tails.
