Answer:
18
Step-by-step explanation:
Change 3 into a fraction.
Which gives you 3/1
multiply 3/1 by the inverse of 1/6
3/1x1/6
Then you get 1 :)
Step-by-step explanation:

Use the identity

on the left side.
![\dfrac{1 - \cos [2(\frac{\pi}{4} - \alpha)]}{2} = \frac{1}{2}(1 - \sin 2\alpha)](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%5Cdfrac%7B1%20-%20%5Ccos%20%5B2%28%5Cfrac%7B%5Cpi%7D%7B4%7D%20-%20%5Calpha%29%5D%7D%7B2%7D%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%7D%281%20-%20%5Csin%202%5Calpha%29%20)

Now use the identity

on the left side.


Its D because its a one-to-many relation ( note 2 maps to 3 and also maps to 5), o0maps to -1 and also to 4 and 6)
Y=2x+4 that’s the equation
Answer:
yes
Step-by-step explanation: