Answer:
B. includes only one good.
Explanation:
A corner solution is a microeconomics concept, which is used to illustrate the graphical representation of a situation where an individual wouldn't do some things at any cost or for any price.
Optimum is usually experienced on the consumer graph at the point where the indifference curve (IC) is just tangential to the consumer's budget constraint. Thus, the corner solution lies at the non-zero interior, which then means that none of the other goods is contained in the optimum.
Hence, an optimum that occurs as a corner solution includes only one good.
<em>For instance, Tracy saying she wouldn't buy a XYZ phone for any price, or Sarah saying she would visit a museum no matter how much it will cost her are some examples of corner solution. </em>
Answer: 7.922%
Explanation:
Bank 1 lends at nominal rate of 8% and payments made is semiannually,
So,
Semiannual rate of bank 1 = 4%
Effective annual rate of Bank 1:


= 8.16%
If Bank 2 wants to maintain the same level of EAR at quarterly compounding:





Quarterly rate = 1.01980390271 - 1
= 1.980390%
Nominal annual rate for Bank 2 = Quarterly rate × 4
= 1.980390% × 4
= 7.9215% or 7.922%
A master budget schedules answer several key questions for a company. Thus the correct option is last.
<h3 /><h3>What is Master Budget?</h3>
A master budget is created by combining all of the smaller business budgets into one budget in order to provide a comprehensive insight into the company's financial position.
All other departments' budgets are combined into the master budget to create a single budget. It may be said that the master budget schedules provide answers to a number of issues connected to the many departments within an organization.
Therefore, the last option is appropriate.
Learn more about the master budget, here:-
brainly.com/question/15900166
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Answer:
$160,000
Explanation:
On February 15, 20X8, S3 Corporation purchased the land from a non affiliate for $160,000.
That was the last operation involving a third party.
<u>The rest of the operation should not recognize any income or loss.</u>
If not, a company can create artificial gains and losses by selling the asset at diferent prices.
It will sale higher on one company to avoid a net loss
and then sale cheaper on another to decrease the taxable income.
That's why it will be "lock" at 160,00 until an operation is made with a non-affiliate company
Answer:
where is the stuff its just the question
Explanation: