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MrMuchimi
3 years ago
15

Please help! include work/reasoning as well please!

Mathematics
1 answer:
Alenkasestr [34]3 years ago
4 0

The correct answer is (C)!

Triangle IJK is an iscoceles triangle. Since the interior angle of a regular pentagon is 108°, Angle JIK = 36°.

Hence, Angle HIK = 108° - 36° = 72°.

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There are 50 cards numbered from 1 to 50. two different cards are chosen at random. what is the probability that one number is t
d1i1m1o1n [39]
The first card has to be 25 or less, which is 50% and the next card has to be a single card, which is 1/49. This will give you the answer of 1/98
7 0
3 years ago
Does the series converge or diverge? If it converges, what is the sum? Show your work. ∑ ∞ n = 1 − 4 ( − 1 / 2 ) n − 1
Mekhanik [1.2K]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the series,

∑ ∞ n = 1 − 4 ( − 1 / 2 ) n − 1

I think the series is summation from n = 1 to ∞ of -4(-1/2)^(n-1)

So,

∑ − 4 ( − ½ )^(n − 1). From n = 1 to ∞

There are different types of test to show if a series converges or diverges

So, using Ratio test

Lim n → ∞ (a_n+1 / a_n)

Lim n → ∞ (-4(-1/ 2)^(n+1-1) / -4(-1/2)^(n-1))

Lim n → ∞ ((-4(-1/2)^(n) / -4(-1/2)^(n-1))

Lim n → ∞ (-1/2)ⁿ / (-1/2)^(n-1)

Lim n→ ∞ (-1/2)^(n-n+1)

Lim n→ ∞ (-1/2)^1 = -1/2

Since the limit is less than 0, then, the series converge...

Sum to infinity

Using geometric progression formula

S∞ = a / 1 - r

Where

a is first term

r is common ratio

So, first term is

a_1 = -4(-½)^1-1 = -4(-½)^0 = -4 × 1

a_1 = -4

Common ratio r = a_2 / a_1

a_2 = 4(-½)^2-1 = -4(-½)^1 = -4 × -½ = 2

a_2 = 2

Then,

r = a_2 / a_1 = 2 / -4 = -½

S∞ = -4 / 1--½

S∞ = -4 / 1 + ½

S∞ = -4 / 3/2 = -4 × 2 / 3

S∞ = -8 / 3 = -2⅔

The sum to infinity is -2.67 or -2⅔

Check attachment for better understanding

3 0
3 years ago
At what rate did Bonnie type her paper if she typed a 2 page report in 45 minutes?
daser333 [38]

Answer:

1 page takes her 22.5 minutes for each page

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
I need help. Work has to be shown but i don’t know how to do them
mote1985 [20]

Step-by-step explanation:

1.

1% of 500 is 5 so multiply 5 by 8 for one year. which is 40 so multiply that by 2.

1% of 500 = 5

5 × 8 = 40

40 × 2 = 80

2.

1% of 1000 = 10

10 × 5 = 50

50 × 3 = 150

3.

12 months = 6%

6/12 = 1 month

0.5 = 1 month

0.5 × 9 = 4.5 (the amount of interest for 9 months.)

800 × 4.5% = 36

4.

12 months = 7%

7/12 = 1 month ( i'll leave this in fraction form because of the decimal points.)

7/12 x 8 = 4.666667 or 4.7 rounded.

1200 × 4.7% = 56.40

8 0
2 years ago
Help me plez the question is on the picture
konstantin123 [22]

Answer:

2 x 5 x 5 x 5 x 5

Step-by-step explanation:

Since it is stated 2 times  5 to the power of 4, then we would write it out as:

2 x 5 x 5 x 5 x 5

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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