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Ganezh [65]
3 years ago
11

Please solve this, What is the product of the binomials below? (d−1)(d+2)(d−3)

Mathematics
2 answers:
katrin [286]3 years ago
8 0
I believe the answer is 3d+6
ludmilkaskok [199]3 years ago
6 0
The answer you are looking for is:
Step 1: (d-1)(d+2)=d^2+d-2
Step 2: (d-3)(<span>d^2+d-2) = d^3+d^2-2d-3d^2-3d+6 = d^3-2d^2-5d+6

Your answer is </span><span> d^3-2d^2-5d+6</span>
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Can y'all help me with my math problem please
Greeley [361]

Answer:

it is C

Step-by-step explanation:

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2 years ago
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Everyone at Jaylen's school wore either brown or blue for school spirit day. 90 students wore brown and 10 students wore blue. W
NISA [10]

Answer:

90%

Step-by-step explanation:

90 + 10 is 100 total

90/100 is just 90%

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Anybody wanna c h at zoo m<br> 928-1137-7133<br> HtHq72
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3 years ago
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For a moving object, the force acting on the object varies directly with the object's acceleration. When a force of 20 N acts on
jeka94

The acceleration of the object will be 10 m/s²

Step-by-step explanation:

Direct variation is a relationship between two variables that can be expressed by an equation in which one variable is equal to a constant times the other

  • If y varies directly with x, then y ∝ x
  • y = k x, where k is the constant of variation

For a moving object, the force acting on the object varies directly with the object's acceleration.

Assume that the force is F and the acceleration is a

∵ F ∝ a

∴ F = k a

∵ F = 20 newtons

∵ a = 4 m/s²

- Substitute these values in the equation above to find k

∵ 20 = k (4)

∴ 20 = 4 k

- Divide both sides by 4

∴ k = 5

- Substitute the value of k in the equation

∴ F = 5 a ⇒ equation of variation

∵ F = 50 Newtons

∵ F = 5 a

∴ 50 = 5 a

- Divide both sides by 5

∴ 10 = a

∴ a = 10 m/s²

The acceleration of the object will be 10 m/s²

Learn more:

You can learn more about variation in brainly.com/question/10708697

#LearnwithBrainly

7 0
3 years ago
Suppose that a simulation with a six-sided number cube provided these results during testing.
lyudmila [28]
Theoretical probability:
1 ... (16 and 2/3) %
2 ... (16 and 2/3) %
3 ... (16 and 2/3) %
4 ... (16 and 2/3) %
5 ... (16 and 2/3) %
6 ... (16 and 2/3) %

Experimental results:
1 ... 18
2 ... 16
3 ... 16
4 ... 17
5 ... 16
6 ... 17

The total number of rolls in the experiment was

         (18 + 16 + 16 + 17 + 16 + 17)  =  100

so the expected frequency for each outcome was 16-2/3 times,
and the SIMULATION probabilities were

1 ... 18%
2 ... 16%
3 ... 16%
4 ... 17%
5 ... 16%
6 ... 17%

To me, this looks fantastically close.  The cube
could hardly be more fair than it actually is.










8 0
3 years ago
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