Step-by-step explanation:
so he already down 20 ft so he ascends (goes up) 9 feet, so hes at 11 feet right now. then he descends 12 (goes down) feet so hes at 23 feet. lastly he ascends 15 feet (goes up) more. so the answer is 8
Step 1: We make the assumption that 498 is 100% since it is our output value.
Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with $x$x.
Step 3: From step 1, it follows that $100\%=498$100%=498.
Step 4: In the same vein, $x\%=4$x%=4.
Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:
$100\%=498(1)$100%=498(1).
$x\%=4(2)$x%=4(2).
Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have
$\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{498}{4}$
100%
x%=
498
4
Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields
$\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{4}{498}$
x%
100%=
4
498
$\Rightarrow x=0.8\%$⇒x=0.8%
Therefore, $4$4 is $0.8\%$0.8% of $498$498.
Answer:
the probability of no defects in 10 feet of steel = 0.1353
Step-by-step explanation:
GIven that:
A roll of steel is manufactured on a processing line. The anticipated number of defects in a 10-foot segment of this roll is two.
Let consider β to be the average value for defecting
So;
β = 2
Assuming Y to be the random variable which signifies the anticipated number of defects in a 10-foot segment of this roll.
Thus, y follows a poisson distribution as number of defect is infinite with the average value of β = 2
i.e
the probability mass function can be represented as follows:
where;
y = 0,1,2,3 ...
Hence, the probability of no defects in 10 feet of steel
y = 0
P(y =0) = 0.1353
Angles 1 and 2 are adjacent, we know this because they are side by side. Meaning they are adjacent.
Angles 1 and 2 are also complementary because they add up to 90°
Answer: 31/35
Step-by-step explanation:
