Answer:
To find the inverse, interchange the variables and solve for y
.
f^−1(x)=x/5−3/5
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
Option A. 8 will be your answer
Step-by-step explanation:
hope it helps you
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Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
-This is a binomial probability distribution problem.
-Given that p=0.86 and n=11, the sample variance can be calculated using the formula:
#We substitute the given parameters in the formula to solve for variance:
Hence, the sample variance is 1.32
<h3>
Answer: ASA</h3>
Explanation:
The arc markings for each angle show that we have two pairs of congruent angles (angle O = angle Q, angle M = angle R). This takes care of the two "A"s in "ASA". The tickmarks show us that the sides MO and RQ are the same length, so this takes care of the "S" of "ASA". Note the congruent sides are between the angles mentioned. The order is important.
