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AnnZ [28]
3 years ago
5

Discount factor is 0.985. Stock XYZ is selling for $40 a share. An American option on this stock with a strike price of $38 is t

rading at $0.25 per share. If it is known that this option is priced above its intrinsic value, what type of option is it?
Business
1 answer:
weqwewe [10]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Put option

Explanation:

We have current price 40dollars - strike price 38dollars = $2. The question says the stock is trading at $0.25 per share. Since 0.25 is higher than 0 it is a put option. And the intrinsic value is $2.

The put option gives one the right to sell a particular number of shares at a price that has been set which is referred to as the strike price before a certain date.

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Savallas Company is highly automated and uses computers to control manufacturing operations. The company uses a job-order costin
Setler79 [48]

Answer:

Part 1.  Compute the company%u2019s predetermined overhead rate for the year

Predetermined overhead rate  = $15 / Computer Hour

Part 2. Compute the underapplied or overapplied overhead for the year.

Underapplied Overheads are: $1,350,000 -  $900,000 = $450,000

Part 3.  Assume the company closes any underapplied or overapplied overhead directly to cost of goods sold. Prepare the appropriate journal entry.

Cost of goods sold $450,000 (debit)

Overhead Account $450,000 (credit)

Part 4. Company allocates any underapplied or overapplied overhead to work in process, finished goods, and cost of goods sold on the basis of the amount of overhead applied during the year that remains in each account at the end of the year:

Work In Process $18,000 (debit)

Finished Goods $73,008 (debit)

Cost of Goods Sold $315,000 (debit)

Overhead Account $450,000(credit)

Explanation:

Part 1.  Compute the company%u2019s predetermined overhead rate for the year

Predetermined overhead rate = Budgeted Overheads / Budgeted Activity

                                                    = $1,275,000/ 85,000

                                                    = $15 / Computer Hour

Part 2. Compute the underapplied or overapplied overhead for the year.

Applied Overheads = Actual hours × Predetermined overhead rate

                                 = 60,000 × $15

                                 =  $900,000

Actual Overheads = given = $1,350,000

Applied Overheads $900,000 < Actual Overheads $1,350,000, thus we have an underapplied situation

Therefore Underapplied Overheads are: $1,350,000 -  $900,000 = $450,000

Part 3.  Assume the company closes any underapplied or overapplied overhead directly to cost of goods sold. Prepare the appropriate journal entry.

Cost of goods sold $450,000 (debit)

Overhead Account $450,000 (credit)

Part 4. Company allocates any underapplied or overapplied overhead to work in process, finished goods, and cost of goods sold on the basis of the amount of overhead applied during the year that remains in each account at the end of the year:

Allocations:

                                         Totals          Weighted Average%       Allocation

Work In Process              $43,200                   4%                           $18,000

Finished Goods              $280,800               26%                           $73,008

Cost of Goods Sold        $756,000               70%                          $315,000

Total                                $1,080,000            100%                         $450,000

Journals:

Work In Process $18,000 (debit)

Finished Goods $73,008 (debit)

Cost of Goods Sold $315,000 (debit)

Overhead Account $450,000(credit)

5 0
3 years ago
Income elasticity of demand is
coldgirl [10]

Answer: Option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

Income elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of quantity demanded with change in the income level of an individual.

Income\ elasticity\ of\ demand=\frac{percentage\ in\ quantity\ demanded}{percentage\ change\ in\ income}

Income of an individual has a positive relationship with the demand for normal goods and has a negative relationship with the demand for inferior goods.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Dave mentions that insurance is the defense for managing your money. Why is this true?.
777dan777 [17]

Insurance is a method of defense when it comes to managing your money according to Dave because it prevents you from incurring more debt.

<h3>How does insurance defend your money?</h3>

According to Dave Ramsey, a defense method in managing your money is one that helps you reduce or avoid debt.

Insurance is therefore a defense for managing your money because it saves you from having to incur debt when you pass through a dangerous situation because the insurance will pay out instead of you having to borrow.

Find out more on the purpose of insurance at brainly.com/question/1941778.

#SPJ1

8 0
2 years ago
Whats 2/5-3/7= A 1/2 B 5/12 C 14/15 D 29/35​
Ivahew [28]

Find common denominators. What you do to the denominator, you do to the numerator.

(2/5)(7/7) = 14/35

(3/7)(5/5) = 15/35

14/35 - 15/35 = -1/35

If you meant to put addition, then your answer will be D) 29/35.

14/35 + 15/35 = 29/35

~

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which of the following statements will an auditor most likely add to the negative from of confirmations of accounts receivable t
MrRissso [65]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "C": "If you do not report any differences with 15 days, it will be assumed that this statement is correct".

Explanation:

Accounts Receivable, or AR, is an accounting term used to refer to the money that is owed to a company by its customers. The customers, who may be individuals or corporations, are the debtors since they owe money for the goods or services provided by the company. When the product is sold in credit the company sets a number of days so that the customer can pay the bill amount. The term usually is 30, 60 or 90 days.

In that sense, and auditor may find 15 days suitable for a debtor for report changes in a statement, otherwise, it is considered as correct.

7 0
3 years ago
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