1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
melamori03 [73]
3 years ago
10

Justinian Code has unquestionably formed the basis for many codes of law in countries around the world today. Do you think the l

aws of today in the United States are stricter than those laws of Roman time? Provide examples to support your opinion
History
1 answer:
OverLord2011 [107]3 years ago
4 0
This is definitely a “History” or “Politics & Government”” question, not “Travel” and I agree with Sue, you’re avoiding doing your own homework. I’m not going to do it for you, but I’ll try and put you on the right track.
The “Roman” institutions (caro amico napoletano, il ragazzo sta parlando della Roma antica, anzi di Bisanzio, che aveva un principio legislatvo ben diverso dal nostro, uno che “funzionava” per essere chiari) definitely influenced the Founding fathers. Some aspects are obvious (The Senate, Governors of Roman Provinces/US States, Ethics) others are less obvious (Representation, civil Rights of citizens, Fiscal system).
The basic differences are of “anglo saxon” inspiration (Pursuit of happiness, Common law, Inviolability of office).
The end result is a very interesting combination of both, which should make US citizens proud of their constitution and system of Government.
Compare Obama’s political platform with the Gracchi brothers, and both Bushes with the Dictator Sulla. You should get quite an interesting result.
The Justinian Code came very late in Roman History, when “Rome” had ceased to exist, and it’s spirit continued to live in Byzantium, in a very watered “Greek” community. In terms of law making, it is certainly interesting, because it is an attempt to sum up all that was positive in the “inherited system”, but it should not be taken out of it’s Historical context, unless you believe the US has reached the same stage of “decline”, which I don’t.
Stricter laws in Roman times? I would say more Draconian, according to the times.
Look up a description of Gibbons’ “Decline and Fall of the Roman Empire” and you should have enough background data to write your paper.
You might be interested in
58 points!!!! and brainlist!!!
denis23 [38]

Answer:

1: By modern standards of international law, no. According to article 1 of the Montevideo Convention a state needs to possess 1) a permanent population, 2) a defined territory, 3) a government, and 4) the capacity to enter into relations with other states.

As a practical matter a state without a government lacks the ability to be represented abroad. Without a government no group is authorized to exercise sovereignty internally. A state without a government cannot interact with, cannot negotiate with, and cannot communicate with other states.

2: I think it means that by nature we are use and need politics. Politics means Politics is the set of activities that are associated with making decisions in groups, or other forms of power relations between individuals, such as the distribution of resources or status. Which means no matter what we use politics to survive.

Explanation:

Hope it helps!

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What was the agrarian revolution?​
sashaice [31]

Answer:

The Agrarian Revolution is the term given to the transformation in agriculture in England during the Georgian period. ... Some of the changes brought on by the Agrarian Revolution involved planting crops (particularly clover and turnips) to provide food for overwintering animals.

3 0
3 years ago
Based on what you have read, how did the English Bill of Rights create the foundations of democratic rule in England and the Uni
oksian1 [2.3K]

In 1689 the English rights bill was passed.

<u>Explanation:</u>

In 1689 a bill was passed which created a foundation of the democratic rule in U.K and USA.This bill  limits the powers of the crown (king and queen) .It created separation in powers.

Further the bill also encouraged the freedom of speech and promoted democratic election. The bill gave the power of sovereignty  to the parliament of both United States and England.

In fact the English bill of rights of unites states was later modelled after the bill of England. The basic provision of the bill was that crown will not interfere with the government issues.

4 0
3 years ago
The term MANIFEST DESTINY was used to describe
____ [38]
The term "manifest destiny" was used to describe "<span>c. The inevitability of American dominion over all of North America," since many thought that the US was "destined" to stretch all the way to the Pacific Ocean. </span>
4 0
3 years ago
How did a growing sense of nationalism contribute to the decline of the Ottoman Empire?
Vsevolod [243]

Answer: Some ethnic groups successfully declared their independence.

Explanation:Just did test on edgenuity

7 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • What was the staple crop for most native american groups?
    7·1 answer
  • What is characteristic of the Monroe Doctrine?
    7·1 answer
  • Use the quote to answer the question.
    7·2 answers
  • The only Central Power nation to survive after WWI was
    13·2 answers
  • Did White Virginians enslave people of African American descents because of long held, deep seated racial bias?
    15·1 answer
  • The "enclosure system" in late 17th and early 18th century England refers to
    5·2 answers
  • What does the Enlightenment idea of popular sovereignty mean?
    14·2 answers
  • Heyy! please help i’ll give brainliest asap
    11·2 answers
  • Which of the following is NOT an advantage of having citizenship in a specific country?
    7·1 answer
  • What is true about globalization as a foreign policy concern?
    5·2 answers
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!