All categories

2 years ago

Anyone know what this is

Mathematics

2 answers:

ioda2 years ago

5 0

Answer:

D: No, because on x-values corresponds to two different y-values.

Step-by-step explanation:

Two of the y-values are the same with different x-values

and so is x 8 couldn't be 5 and 8 it would have to have the same y-value

RUDIKE [14]2 years ago

4 0

D No, because one x-value corresponds to two different y-values

You might be interested in

An exterior angle of a triangle is 180 degrees.

Lilit [14]

180 degrees of the triage

5 0

2 years ago

DIscrete Math

Daniel [21]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

As the statement is ‘‘if and only if’’ we need to prove two implications

$f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective implies there exists a function $h : Y \rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h = 1_Y$ .
If there exists a function $h : Y \rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h = 1_Y$ , then $f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective

Let us start by the first implication.

Our hypothesis is that the function $f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective. From this we know that for every $y\in Y$ there exist, at least, one $x\in X$ such that $y=f(x)$ .

Now, define the sets $X_y = \{x\in X: y=f(x)\}$ . Notice that the set $X_y$ is the pre-image of the element $y$ . Also, from the fact that $f$ is a function we deduce that $X_{y_1}\cap X_{y_2}=\emptyset$ , and because $f$ the sets $X_y$ are no empty.

From each set $X_y$ choose only one element $x_y$ , and notice that $f(x_y)=y$ .

So, we can define the function $h:Y\rightarrow X$ as $h(y)=x_y$ . It is no difficult to conclude that $f\circ h(y) = f(x_y)=y$ . With this we have that $f\circ h=1_Y$ , and the prove is complete.

Now, let us prove the second implication.

We have that there exists a function $h:Y\rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h=1_Y$ .

Take an element $y\in Y$ , then $f\circ h(y)=y$ . Now, write $x=h(y)$ and notice that $x\in X$ . Also, with this we have that $f(x)=y$ .

So, for every element $y\in Y$ we have found that an element $x\in X$ (recall that $x=h(y)$ ) such that $y=f(x)$ , which is equivalent to the fact that $f$ is surjective. Therefore, the prove is complete.

3 0

2 years ago

What is equivalent to (x – 8)(x – 6)?

baherus [9]

X^2 - 8x - 6x + 48 i think

6 0

2 years ago

A Chinese restaurant offers buffet takeout for $4.99 per pound. How much does your takeout meal cost?

Degger [83]

Answer:

$7.68

Step-by-step explanation:

4.99/0.65 = $7.68

Hope it helps!

4 0

2 years ago

11. This picture shows a table in the shape of a regular hexagon.

disa [49]

Answer:

Sum of interior angles = 720°

One interior angle = 120°

Step-by-step explanation:

Sum of interior angles = 180°(n-2)

Where n is the number of sides in a polygon

Therefore, one angle in a regular polygon will be (180°(n-2))÷n

Hence

Sum of interior angles= 180°(6-2)

= 720°

One interior angle = 720°÷6

= 120°

3 0

3 years ago