Answer:
the question is false
Explanation:
you can't sell stock for ownership
Answer:
Instructions are below.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Susan:
Annual deposit= $5,000 for 10 years
Lumo-sum for 30 years
Interest rate= 8.5%
Jane:
Annual deposit= $5,000 for 30 years.
<u>First, we will calculate the future value of Susan:</u>
<u></u>
First 10 years:
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= annual deposit
FV= {5,000*[(1.085^10)-1]}/0.085
FV= $74,175.50
Last 30 years:
FV= PV*(1+i)^n
FV= 74,175.50*(1.085^30)
FV= $857,050.14
<u>Jane:</u>
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= annual deposit
FV= {5,000*[(1.085^30)-1]}/0.085
FV= $621,073.63
<u>Earnings difference= 857,050.14 - 621,073.63= $235,976.51 in favor of Susan.</u>
Answer:
<u>The actual direct labor hours are 45,000.</u>
<u>The overhead rate for Year 2 is $1.74.</u>
Explanation:
Compute the actual direct labor hours:

<u>Therefore, the actual direct labor hours are 45,000.</u>
Compute the overhead rate for Year 2:

<u>Therefore, the overhead rate for Year 2 is $1.74.</u>
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Working note:
Calculate the overhead rate for Year 1:

Answer:
1. top-down
2. apportion
Explanation:
Based on the manufacturing industry standards, Project managers typically use TOP-DOWN also called analogous estimating or the APPORTION method when there is a past history of similar projects and rough-cut estimates are needed for strategic purposes two to five years out because, as estimating methods go, it is faster and less expensive.
Answer:
A) -$10,020,000
Explanation:
Year 0 cash flow = -(Cost of Machine + Installation Cost + Clean Room Cost)
Year 0 cash flow = -($7,000,000 + $20,000 + $3,000,000)
Year 0 cash flow = -$10,200,000
So, the incremental free cash flows associated with the new machine in year 0 is ($10,200,000).