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3 years ago

15

An ordinary deck of 52 playing cards is randomly divided into 4 piles of 13 cards example 2g each. compute the probability that

each pile has exactly 1 ace.

1 answer:

stiks02 [169]3 years ago

6 0

The answer is 26 i had the question before and i got it correct

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GIVING BRAINLIEST!!! <br><br> What’s 2 x2

Papessa [141]

Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

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How would i solve this 2_4×4

Vedmedyk [2.9K]

Maybe, 2 x 4 then 8 x 4 =
answer = 32

8 0

3 years ago

Simplify by combining like terms: -3 + 6x - 18 - 22x

alekssr [168]

Answer: -16x-21

Explanation: 6x + (-22x)=-16x
-18+(-3)=-21

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What does 100%, 4/4 ,1.000 have in common

Vadim26 [7]

They all end up being 1
100% = 1
4/4 = 1
1.000 = 1

4 0

3 years ago

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Let X ~ N(0, 1) and Y = eX. Y is called a log-normal random variable.

Cloud [144]

If $F_Y(y)$ is the cumulative distribution function for $Y$ , then

$F_Y(y)=P(Y\le y)=P(e^X\le y)=P(X\le\ln y)=F_X(\ln y)$

Then the probability density function for $Y$ is $f_Y(y)={F_Y}'(y)$ :

$f_Y(y)=\dfrac{\mathrm d}{\mathrm dy}F_X(\ln y)=\dfrac1yf_X(\ln y)=\begin{cases}\frac1{y\sqrt{2\pi}}e^{-\frac12(\ln y)^2}&\text{for }y>0\\0&\text{otherwise}\end{cases}$

The $n$ th moment of $Y$ is

$E[Y^n]=\displaystyle\int_{-\infty}^\infty y^nf_Y(y)\,\mathrm dy=\frac1{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_0^\infty y^{n-1}e^{-\frac12(\ln y)^2}\,\mathrm dy$

Let $u=\ln y$ , so that $\mathrm du=\frac{\mathrm dy}y$ and $y^n=e^{nu}$ :

$E[Y^n]=\displaystyle\frac1{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{nu}e^{-\frac12u^2}\,\mathrm du=\frac1{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{nu-\frac12u^2}\,\mathrm du$

Complete the square in the exponent:

$nu-\dfrac12u^2=-\dfrac12(u^2-2nu+n^2-n^2)=\dfrac12n^2-\dfrac12(u-n)^2$

$E[Y^n]=\displaystyle\frac1{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{\frac12(n^2-(u-n)^2)}\,\mathrm du=\frac{e^{\frac12n^2}}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-\frac12(u-n)^2}\,\mathrm du$

But $\frac1{\sqrt{2\pi}}e^{-\frac12(u-n)^2}$ is exactly the PDF of a normal distribution with mean $n$ and variance 1; in other words, the 0th moment of a random variable $U\sim N(n,1)$ :

$E[U^0]=\displaystyle\frac1{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-\frac12(u-n)^2}\,\mathrm du=1$

so we end up with

$E[Y^n]=e^{\frac12n^2}$

3 0

3 years ago