I'm not sure about the answer, but this is how I would do it, since 15% and $150 are the same based on the question. do let me know if it's right! :)
Answer:
72
Step-by-step explanation:
In order to find the acceleration we need first to defined it, so:
acceleration=((final velocity)-(initial velocity))/time interval

But (vf-vi) actually represents the velocity change, so (vf-vi)/dt represents the velocity change rate. This means that in our case:


In conclusion the acceleration is
, without units just 72.
Answer:
a) 
Step-by-step explanation:
<u><em>Step(i):-</em></u>
Given that A and B are independent events
P(A∩B) =P(A) P(B)
we will use the conditional probability

or
<u></u>
<u> Step(ii):-</u>
Given that A and B are independent events
P(A∩B) =P(A) P(B)
<u></u>


Answer:
The graph represents a nonlinear function, because the graph isn't a line.
Reason: A linear function is a graph with a straight line, in this case the graph isn't straight, so it is nonlinear function.
Answer:
With 250 minutes of calls the cost of the two plans is the same
Step-by-step explanation:
We must write an equation to represent the cost of each call plan.
<u>For the first plan</u>
Monthly fee
$ 13
Cost per minute
$ 0.17
If we call x the number of call minutes then the equation representing the cost c for this plan is:

<u>For the second plan</u>
monthly fee
$ 23
Cost per minute
$ 0.13
If we call x the number of call minutes then the equation representing the cost c for this plan is:

To know when the cost of both plans are equal, we equate the two equations and solve for x.



With 250 minutes of calls the cost of the two plans is the same: $55.5