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anygoal [31]
3 years ago
10

Financial data for a company is provided below:Cash, end of year, $500,000Estimation of yearly cash expenses from negative cash

flows from operations on statement of cash flows, $(155,000)Cash, beginning of year, $400,000Accounts receivable, $10,000Inventory, $20,000Net Income for the yearHow many months will the company be able to continue without positive cash flows or additional financing (round to nearest whole month)?12 months25 months39 months16 months
Business
1 answer:
Firlakuza [10]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Answer in this case will be 39 months

Explanation:

In given data estimated negative cash flow from operation is (155,000), this is assumed that there will not be any cash flow from investing or financing activities.

data given for accounts receivable and inventory is irrelevant since both are part of operating cash flow which is already estimated.

there for closing balance at the end of year is $ 500000 divided by negative cash flow of (150,000) equals to months company will able to continue without positive cash flow or additional financing.  

You might be interested in
You are planning to save for retirement over the next 30 years. To do this, you will invest $750 per month in a stock account an
Nikolay [14]

Answer:

Ans. Assuming that the withdrawal period is 300 months (25 years), you can withdraw every month $15,547.96

Explanation:

Hi, first, we have to take to future value (30 years in the future) the invested capital (both the stock account and the bond account). From there, we will consider the sum of both future values as the present value of the annuity that you are about to receive for the next 25 years (300 months). But before we do all that, we need to convert the return rates (compounded monthly) into effective monthly rates, for that we just go ahead and divide each one by 12, as follows

r(Stock) = 0.105/12= 0.00875

r(Bond)= 0.061/12 = 0.00508

r(Combined Account)= 0.069/12=0.00575

Now we are ready, first, let´s find the future value of the stock account.

FV(stock)=\frac{750((1+0.00875)^{360}-1) }{0.00875} =1,887,300.74}

Now, let´s find out how much will it be in 30 years, investing $325 per month, at the end of the month, at 0.508% effective monthly.

FV(Bond)=\frac{325((1+0.00508)^{360}-1) }{0.00508} =332,526.95

And then we add them up and we get:

FV(stock)+FV(bond)=1,887,300.74+332,526.95=2,219,827.69

Ok, now let´s find the annuity (monthly withdraw) taking into account that we are going to make 300 withdraws at a rate of 0.575% effective monthly,

[tex]2,219,827.69=A(142.7729593)

\frac{2,219,827.69}{142.7729593} =A

A=15,547.96\frac{A((1+0.00575)^{300}-1) }{0.00575(1+0.00575)^{300} }[/tex]

Best of luck.

5 0
3 years ago
On November 10 of the current year, Flores Mills sold carpet to a customer for $8,000 with credit terms 2/10, n/30. Flores uses
PtichkaEL [24]

Answer:

Following are the solution to this question:

Explanation:

In all the given choices some of the data is missing so, its correct entry can be defined as follows  

Cash account $7,840

Sales discount $160

To Accounts receivable $8,000

8 0
3 years ago
Consider the following statements, and indicate which variable is an independent variable and which variable is a dependent vari
Kobotan [32]

Answer and Explanation:

A. When the employees are more educated and have the higher income as compared with the less educated employees so here education would be indepedent variable and the income is dependent variable. Also the relationship between these two variables i.e. education and income is positive

Therefore the same is relevant

8 0
2 years ago
Use the following comparative figures for Apple and Google. Google 12.662 $ Key Figures Net income (in millions) Cash dividends
azamat

Answer and Explanation :

Few information is missing in the question kindly find the attachment

As per the data given in the question,

The formula and the computation is shown below

1) Book value per share = Equity applicable to share ÷ share outstanding

                                             Apple Google

Equity  common share a $134,047 $152,502

Common share outstanding b 5,126.201 694.783

Book value per common share a ÷ b $26.15 $219.50

2)Basic EPS = Net income ÷ weighted Avg common share outstanding

                Apple Google

Net income a $48,351 $12,662

weighted Avg common share outstanding b 5217.242 693.049

Basic EPS a ÷ b $9.27 $18.27

3)Dividend yield = Cash dividend per common share ÷ Market price per share

                                              Apple Google

Cash dividend per common share a 2.4 0

Market price per share b $154.12 $1046.4

Dividend yield a ÷ b 1.56% 0.00%

4) Price earning ratio = Market price per share ÷ Basic EPS

                                  Apple Google

Market price per share a $154.12 $1046.4

Basic EPS b 9.26754 18.26999

Price earning ratio a ÷ b 16.63 57.27

5) A higher PE ration indicates that investors want to pay a higher share price because of growth expectation in near by future

Therefore Google has higher PE ratio

Hence, investors have greater expectation of performance of Google in future.

4 0
3 years ago
The Investments Fund sells Class A shares with a front-end load of 5% and Class B shares with 12b-1 fees of 0.75% annually as we
elena-14-01-66 [18.8K]

Answer:

The responses to the given choices can be defined as follows:

Explanation:

Assume is the investment. Each original Class A investment is of the net-front unburden. The portfolio will be worth four years from now:  

\$1,000 \times 5\% = \$50 =\$1,000 - \$50 = \$950\\\\         \$950 (1 + 0.13)^4 = \$950 (1.13)^4 = \$950 (1.630474) = \$1,548.95\\\\  

You will place the total of \$1,000 on class B shares, but only 12b-1will be paid (13-0.75 = 12.25) at a rate of 12.25\% and you'll pay a 1\%back-end load charge if you sell for a four-year period.

After 4 years, your portfolio worth would be:      

\$1,000 (1 + 0.1225)^4 = \$1,437.66   \\\\      \$1,000 (1.1225)^4 = \$1000 (1.587616) = \$ 1,587.62  

Their portfolio worth would be: after charging the backend load fee:      

\$1,587.616 \times 0.99 = \$1,571.74   \\\\                     Amounts     \\\\     Class A \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \     1,548.95\\\\          Class B \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \     1,571.74 \\\\

When the horizon is four years, class B shares are also the best option.

Class A shares would value from a 12-year time frame:

\$950 (1.13)^{12} = \$950 (4.334523) = \$4,117.80  \\\\

In this case, no back-end load is required for Class B securities as the horizon is larger than 5 years.

Its value of the class B shares, therefore, is as follows:

\$1,000 (1.1225) 12 = \$1,000 (4.001623) = \$4,001.62 \\\\Amounts    \\\\\      Class A \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ 4,117.80\\\\          Class B \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \   4,001.62\\\\

Class B shares aren't any longer a valid option in this, prolonged duration. Its impact on class B fees of 0.75\%\ \ 12b-1cumulates over a period and eventually outweighs the 5\% the burden of class A shareholders.

4 0
3 years ago
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