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Andrej [43]
3 years ago
5

Consider their resources, trade agreements, social structures, and overall business environments. Briefly explain why each of th

ese five countries might or might not be a viable option for a new American business venture.
Business
1 answer:
rodikova [14]3 years ago
8 0

Explanation:

In international business practices the main factors that might hinder expansion to foreign countries may be;

1. The Cultural diversity or social structures,

2. The Economic Environment: For example, the economic environment of the five countries under consideration <em>may be quite different from the US, such as they may have poor infrastructure and technology.</em>

3. Their Political Environment: The five countries might be having a bad political climate such as risk of riots, war, and terrorism.

You might be interested in
Here are returns and standard deviations for four investments. Return (%) Standard Deviation (%) Treasury bills 4.5 0 Stock P 8.
Jlenok [28]

Answer:

a. Standard deviation of the portfolio = 7.00%

b(i) Standard deviation of the portfolio = 30.00%

b(ii) Standard deviation of the portfolio = 4.00%

b(iii) Standard deviation of the portfolio = 21.40%

Explanation:

Note: This question is not complete. The complete question is therefore provided before answering the question as follows:

Here are returns and standard deviations for four investments.

                                  Return (%)           Standard Deviation (%)

Treasury bills                4.5                                    0

Stock P                          8.0                                   14

Stock Q                        17.0                                  34

Stock R                       21.5                                    26

Calculate the standard deviations of the following portfolios.

a. 50% in Treasury bills, 50% in stock P. (Enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places.)

b. 50% each in Q and R, assuming the shares have:

i. perfect positive correlation

ii. perfect negative correlation

iii. no correlation

(Do not round intermediate calculations. Enter your answers as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places.)

The explanation to the answer is now provided as follows:

a. Calculate the standard deviations of 50% in Treasury bills, 50% in stock P. (Enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places.)

Since there is no correlation between Treasury bills and stocks, it therefore implies that the correlation coefficient between the Treasury bills and stock P is zero.

The standard deviation between the Treasury bills and stock P can be calculated by first estimating the variance of their returns using the following formula:

Portfolio return variance = (WT^2 * SDT^2) + (WP^2 * SDP^2) + (2 * WT * SDT * WP * SDP * CFtp) ......................... (1)

Where;

WT = Weight of Stock Treasury bills = 50%

WP = Weight of Stock P = 50%

SDT = Standard deviation of Treasury bills = 0

SDP = Standard deviation of stock P = 14%

CFtp = The correlation coefficient between Treasury bills and stock P = 0.45

Substituting all the values into equation (1), we have:

Portfolio return variance = (50%^2 * 0^2) + (50%^2 * 14%^2) + (2 * 50% * 0 * 50% * 14% * 0) = 0.49%

Standard deviation of the portfolio = (Portfolio return variance)^(1/2) = (0.49%)^(1/2) = (0.49)^0.5 = 7.00%

b. 50% each in Q and R

To calculated the standard deviation 50% each in Q and R, we first estimate the variance using the following formula:

Portfolio return variance = (WQ^2 * SDQ^2) + (WR^2 * SDR^2) + (2 * WQ * SDQ * WR * SDR * CFqr) ......................... (2)

Where;

WQ = Weight of Stock Q = 50%

WR = Weight of Stock R = 50%

SDQ = Standard deviation of stock Q = 34%

SDR = Standard deviation of stock R = 26%

b(i). assuming the shares have perfect positive correlation

This implies that:

CFqr = The correlation coefficient between stocks Q and = 1

Substituting all the values into equation (2), we have:

Portfolio return variance = (50%^2 * 34%^2) + (50%^2 * 26%^2) + (2 * 50% * 34% * 50% * 26% * 1) = 9.00%

Standard deviation of the portfolio = (Portfolio return variance)^(1/2) = (9.00%)^(1/2) = (9.00%)^0.5 = 30.00%

b(ii). assuming the shares have perfect negative correlation

This implies that:

CFqr = The correlation coefficient between stocks Q and = -1

Substituting all the values into equation (2), we have:

Portfolio return variance = (50%^2 * 34%^2) + (50%^2 * 26%^2) + (2 * 50% * 34% * 50% * 26% * (-1)) = 0.16%

Standard deviation of the portfolio = (Portfolio return variance)^(1/2) = (0.16%)^(1/2) = (0.16%)^0.5 = 4.00%

b(iii). assuming the shares have no correlation

This implies that:

CFqr = The correlation coefficient between stocks Q and = 0

Substituting all the values into equation (2), we have:

Portfolio return variance = (50%^2 * 34%^2) + (50%^2 * 26%^2) + (2 * 50% * 34% * 50% * 26% * 0) = 4.58%

Standard deviation of the portfolio = (Portfolio return variance)^(1/2) = (4.58%)^(1/2) = (4.58%)^0.5 = 21.40%

8 0
3 years ago
Dựa vào lịch sử phát triển của quản trị nguồn nhân lực, dự đoán xu hướng trong tương lai của ngành quản trị nguồn nhân lực .
dalvyx [7]
Tshbjy uts the hbd cuyjhxbjxb jgdhyeiye. Dkhdudb
Dijduyejbduydudhndbiy idyjnei 35 if
4 0
3 years ago
The North Division of XYZ Corporation had average operating assets of $1,000,000 and net operating income of $185,200 in January
azamat

Answer

The answer and procedures of the exercise are attached in the following image.

Explanation  

Please consider the data provided by the exercise. If you have any question please write me back. All the exercises are solved in a single sheet with the formulas indications.  

5 0
3 years ago
7. Winston Company estimates that the factory overhead for the following year will be $1,250,000. The company has decided that t
ser-zykov [4K]

Answer:

$17,500

Explanation:

Given that,

Actual factory overhead for the year = $1,375,000

Estimated overhead = $1,250,000

Estimated machine hour = 50,000

Total machine hours for the year = 54,300

Predetermined rate per hour:

= Estimated overhead ÷ Estimated machine hour

= $1,250,000 ÷ 50,000

= $25 per hour

Applied overhead:

= Predetermined rate per hour × Total machine hours

= $25 × 54,300

= $1,357,500

Therefore, the under-applied amount for the year:

= Actual factory overhead - Applied overhead

= $1,375,000 - $1,357,500

= $17,500

4 0
3 years ago
. January 1, 2002 you bought a coupon bond for $1102. You received a coupon of $50 on December 30 . On January 1, 2003, you sold
Natalka [10]

Answer:

-5.72%

Explanation:

Total rate of return = (Total return/net loss ÷ Purchase Price) × 100 ......... (1)

Loss on sales = Purchase price - Sales price = $1102 - $989 = $113.

Net loss = Coupon received - loss on sales = $50 - $113 = -$63

Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:

Total rate of return = ((-63) ÷ 1,102) × 100 = -5.72%

Therefore, the total rate of return is -5.72%. It is negative because the coupon bond led into net loss.

8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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