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elixir [45]
3 years ago
15

Are all sides of the right angle have sides that are parallel

Mathematics
1 answer:
nydimaria [60]3 years ago
8 0

-- The two sides of a right <u>angle</u> intersect and make the angle.
So do the sides of any other angle. So they can't be parallel.

-- No two sides of a right <u>triangle</u> ... or any other triangle ...can be parallel.


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Find the circumference of the circle and show work
expeople1 [14]

Answer:

\huge\underline{\red{A}\blue{n}\pink{s}\purple{w}\orange{e}\green{r} -}

<u>Circumference</u><u> </u><u>of </u><u>a </u><u>circle </u><u>is </u><u>given </u><u>by </u>

<u>C = 2\pi \: r</u>

  • Given - <u>Diameter</u><u> </u><u>of </u><u>circle </u><u>=</u><u> </u><u>1</u><u>0</u><u> </u><u>yards</u>

radius =  \frac{diameter}{2}  =  \frac{10}{2}  \\  \\ \implies \: 5 \: yards

now ,

<u>substituting</u><u> </u><u>the </u><u>value </u><u>of </u><u>r </u><u>in </u><u>the </u><u>formula </u><u>of </u><u>circumference</u><u> </u><u>~</u>

C =  2 \times  \frac{22}{7}   \times 5 \\  \\ \implies \: C =  \frac{220}{7}  \\  \\ \implies \: C = 31.43 \: yards \: (approx.)

hope helpful :D

4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
3 1/3-1/4 please help me
konstantin123 [22]
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4 0
3 years ago
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40 divided by 6 using integer division
Nitella [24]

Answer: 40 divided by 6 is equal to 6 with a remainder of 4: 40 / 6 = 6 R.

Step-by-step explanation:Start by setting it up with the divisor 6 on the left side and the dividend 40 on the right side like this:

           

   6 ⟌ 4 0  

The divisor (6) goes into the first digit of the dividend (4), 0 time(s). Therefore, put 0 on top:

       0    

   6 ⟌ 4 0  

Multiply the divisor by the result in the previous step (6 x 0 = 0) and write that answer below the dividend.

       0    

   6 ⟌ 4 0  

       0    

Subtract the result in the previous step from the first digit of the dividend (4 - 0 = 4) and write the answer below.

       0    

   6 ⟌ 4 0  

     - 0    

       4    

Move down the 2nd digit of the dividend (0) like this:

       0    

   6 ⟌ 4 0  

     - 0    

       4 0  

The divisor (6) goes into the bottom number (40), 6 time(s). Therefore, put 6 on top:

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     - 0    

       4 0  

Multiply the divisor by the result in the previous step (6 x 6 = 36) and write that answer at the bottom:

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     - 0    

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      3 6  

Subtract the result in the previous step from the number written above it. (40 - 36 = 4) and write the answer at the bottom.

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     - 0    

       4 0  

     - 3 6  

         4  

You are done, because there are no more digits to move down from the dividend. The answer is the top number and the remainder is the bottom number. Therefore, the answer to 40 divided by 6 calculated using Long Division is: 6

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