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viva [34]
3 years ago
12

When underapplied or overapplied manufacturing overhead is prorated, amounts can be assigned to which of the following accounts?

a. Raw-Material Inventory, Manufacturing Overhead, and Direct Labor. b. Cost of Goods Sold, Work-in-Process Inventory, and Finished-Goods Inventory. c. Work-in-Process Inventory, Raw-Material Inventory, and Cost of Goods Sold. d. Raw-Material Inventory, Finished-Goods Inventory, and Cost of Goods Sold. e. Raw-Material Inventory, Work-in-Process Inventory, and Finished-Goods Inventory.
Business
1 answer:
Bogdan [553]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

b. Cost of Goods Sold, Work-in-Process Inventory, and Finished-Goods Inventory.

Explanation:

As for the information, we know

Under applied or over applied overheads can be applied to inventory or inventory cost which includes overheads.

Option a is incorrect as raw material inventory do not include any overheads, therefore, no over or under applied overheads can be allocated to raw material inventory.

In option b all items given include some value of overheads, thus, it is feasible option.

In option c again raw material inventory is included which makes it invalid.

Same in option d and option e, as raw material inventory do not require any overheads, if any processing is done to raw material and then charged to overheads will become work in process.

Therefore, option b is correct.

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Jordan has the following assets and liabilities:-Two Cars $10,000-House $200,000-Mortgage $100,000-Cash $1,000-Car Loans $3,000-
Ilia_Sergeevich [38]

Answer:

The correct option is B. $109,000; $213,000; $104,000

Explanation:

For computing the wealth, first, we have to compute the assets and liabilities value

So, the assets = Cars + House + cash + checking account balance

                 = $10,000 + $200,000 + $1,000 + $2,000

                 = $213,000

So, the liabilities = Mortgage + car loans + credit card balance

                     = $100,000 + $3,000 + $1,000

                     = $104,000

we apply the accounting equation which equals to

Assets = Liabilities + shareholder equity

And, the wealth equal to

= Assets - Liabilities

= $213,000 - $104,000

= $109,000

Hence, Jordan's wealth is $109,000, the value of Jordan's assets is $213,000, and the value of Jordan's liability is $104,000.

Therefore, the correct option is B. $109,000; $213,000; $104,000

3 0
3 years ago
3. Why would the sale of counterfeit products through its sites be damaging to Alibaba?
timurjin [86]

Reputation.

If a company has a bad reputation of allowing the sale of counterfeit goods, buyers will not trust the site and will not buy from it.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Comfort Cords produces curtain cords. In the process of manufacturing those cords, it also produces hair ties which are sold sep
hoa [83]

Answer:

$609,000

Explanation:

The revenue in June for  Comfort Cords is the sum of the revenue from cords and hair ties.

The revenue from each is the product of the unit selling price and the quantity sold.

= 50000 * $12 + 9000 * $1

= $600,000 + $9000

= $609,000

3 0
3 years ago
______ approach to capital budgeting discounts the after-tax cash flow from a project going to the equity holders of a levered f
lord [1]

Flow to Equity (FTE) is the approach to capital budgeting that discounts the after-tax cash flow from a project going to the equity holders of a levered firm.

An alternative capital budgeting strategy is the flow to equity (FTE) or free cash flow approach. The FTE approach merely requires that equity capital be discounted at the cost of the cash flows from the project to the equity holders of the leveraged firm. The amount of cash that a company's equity shareholders have access to after all costs, reinvestment, and debt repayment is taken into account is known as flow to equity. Free Cash Flow to Equity (FCFE) is calculated as Net Income - (Capital Expenditures - Depreciation) - (Change in Non-cash Working Capital) - (Change in Non-cash Equity) + (New Debt Issued - Debt Repayments) This is the cash flow that can be used to repurchase stock or pay dividends.

More about cash flow brainly.com/question/17406590

#SPJ4

4 0
1 year ago
For​ 2018, Rest-Well Bedding uses​ machine-hours as the only overhead​ cost-allocation base. The direct cost rate is​ $6.00 per
maria [59]

Answer:

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $6.875 per machine-hour

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

The estimated manufacturing overhead costs are​ $275,000 and an estimated​ 40,000 machine hours.

To calculate the predetermined manufacturing overhead rate we need to use the following formula:

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= 275,000/40,000

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $6.875 per machine-hour

3 0
3 years ago
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