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VikaD [51]
3 years ago
6

The insured owns an older home with lath and plaster walls. Following a kitchen fire, the insurance company pays to have the wal

l replaced with drywall that is just as functional, but costs less than lath and plaster. Which loss valuation allows the insurance company to have plaster replaced with drywall?
Business
2 answers:
Umnica [9.8K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Answer is Functional Replacement Cost.

Refer below.

Explanation:

Functional Replacement Cost — the cost of procuring another thing of property that will play out a similar capacity with equivalent productivity, regardless of whether it isn't indistinguishable from the property being supplanted.

Stolb23 [73]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Functional Replacement Cost.

Explanation: Functional Replacement Cost is the cost of acquiring another equipments which has the capacity of performing the same functions as the one being replaced. In this case,the equipment acquired may not be similar to the one which it is aimed at replacing.

Functional replacement policy is a policy or product of Insurance companies which helps subscribers to be able to replace such items which may have been destroyed by fire or other accidents.

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The entry to accrue a contingent liability reduces equity but not income. is made if it is more likely than not that the liabili
Lorico [155]

Answer:

is made if it is more likely than not that the liability has been incurred.

Explanation:

When contingent liability is recorded it is recorded by debiting income statement and creating a liability in balance sheet, also it is not accounted for until the amount of liability is pretty certain as without being clear about its occurrence and the amount involved the liability cannot be recorded.

There is no such loss account, there exists only income statement.

Therefore, with the above we can conclude that contingent liability is recorded only if:

is made if it is more likely than not that the liability has been incurred.

3 0
3 years ago
a perpetual bond with a par value of $1,000 and a semiannual coupon has a yield to maturity of 5.20% and a current price of $1,0
ycow [4]

Rate = 5.2% / 2 = 2.6%

Price = Semi annual coupon / Yield

1,055 = Semi annual coupon / 0.026

Semi annual coupon = 27.43

Annual coupon = 27.43 * 2 = 54.86

Current yield = (Coupon / price) * 100

Current yield = (54.86 / 1,055) * 100

Current yield = 5.20%

A perpetual bond, also regarded colloquially as a perpetual or perp, is a bond without a maturity date, consequently allowing it to be handled as equity, not as debt. Issuers pay coupons on perpetual bonds all the time, and they no longer ought to redeem the most important. Perpetual bond coin flows are, consequently, the ones of perpetuity.

A perpetual bond is a bond not using a maturity date that isn't always redeemable however can pay a regular circulate of interest for all time.

Maturity or maturity date is the date on which the very last fee is due on a loan or other financial device, consisting of a bond or term deposit, at which factor the major is because of being paid. Most devices have a hard and fast maturity date which is a particular date on which the device matures.

Learn more about Perpetual bonds here: brainly.com/question/14685796

#SPJ4

4 0
1 year ago
Indicate with the appropriate letter the nature of each adjustment described below: Type of Adjustment A. Change in accounting p
julia-pushkina [17]

Answer:

A. Change in accounting principle (reported retrospectively) - PR

B. Change in accounting principle (exception reported prospectively) - PP

C. Change in estimate - E

D. Change in estimate resulting from a change in accounting principle - EP

E. Change in reporting entity - R

F. Correction of an error - N

4 0
3 years ago
Money is a productive asset. Its opportunity cost is:
dsp73

Answer:

The correct answer is A. The time value of money.

Explanation:

In economic theory, the temporary value of money is intended to represent the idea that a dollar of today is worth more than a dollar of the future, even after adjusting for inflation, because a dollar can now generate interest or other returns up to moment in which the dollar of the future is received. This theory is based on the calculation of present or current value.

8 0
4 years ago
Afirm has production function q=10"(L^0.5)*(K^0.5), where "L"0.5" means "L raised to the 0.5 power," and the same applies to the
Amanda [17]

Answer:

(A) 15 × p

(B) 225\times p{^2}

(C)  P\times 5\times k^{0.5}

Explanation:

(B) direct= demand function of labor will be,

Q: f(w),

where Q is labor demand quantity and is function of wage

K=9 constant, then production function changes to,

=30L^{0.5}

Marginal product of labor:

= 15L^{-0.5}

Marginal revenue product or value of marginal product:

=15p\times L^{- 0.5}

This is showing what revenue a firm will generate due to hiring one additional unit of labor.

So firm will keep hiring until the revenue the additional labor is generating is equal to its hiring cost or wage.

So, putting MRP or VMP to wage:

P\times15\times L^{-0.5}=W

By solving,

\frac{(225\times p^{2})}{W^{2}}=L

And the multiplicative term is 225\times p{^2}

(A) Inverse demand function of labor will be,

W: f(Q)  

where W is wage rate and demand function of labor demanded quantity.

As previously solved,

P\times15 \times L^{0.5}=W

and the multiplicative constant term is 15 × p.

(c) In long run capital will also variate, so production function will be,

=10L^{0.5}\times k{^0.5}

MP=\frac{(5\times k^{0.5})}{L^{0.5}}

VMP=\frac{P(5\times k^{0.5})}{L^{0.5}}

( p is market price of good that firm is producing using labor)

putting it equal to Wage)

W=\frac{(5\times k^{0.5})}{L^{0.5}}

and the constant term is  P\times 5\times k^{0.5}.

Note:

I did a) second place and b) on first . I already put the serial alphabet on the start of the answer.

8 0
3 years ago
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