Answer:
1,000 shares
Explanation:
The 318 attribution rule states that stock owned directly or indirectly by a partnership is considered to be owned by any partner that owns 5% or more in the business.
This is relevant to family owned businesses and is a way to mark out principal owners of a business in order to avoid tax evasion and fraud.
In this scenario John directly owns 700 of the outstanding shares. But according to the 318 attribution rule, since he he is a 50% partner he owns half of the outstanding 2,000 shares. That is 1,000 shares.
Answer:
Option A is the correct answer,$5810
Explanation:
The relevant of the Y51B is the cost of replacement,which is the open market price as it is actively being used by Yehle Inc.
Besides, if the quantity currently in inventory is used it has to be replaced at open market price.
Disposal value would have been used if the material in question is not being used
The relevant of 700 liters is given below:
$5.81*1000=$5,810
1000 liters has to be bought not 700 liters as the least quantity available for sale is 1000 liters.
Above,it would be wrong to choose option D as 700 liters is not available
Answer:
Fiduciary
Explanation:
A fiduciary is a person that is appointed to protect the interests of his principal.
He should ensure that all transactions favor his principal maximally. It also entails full disclosure.
In this case, Mark was going to be the beneficiary of the sale. Even if the site was sold at fair market value, Mark has responsibility to fully disclose the source of the transaction to Anna.
Conflict of duty is when the fiduciary benefits from his position. This is not allowed.
Answer:
1. $2.5 million
2. $0
Explanation:
1. Since the book value is more than the generated future cash flows so book value cannot be recovered. In this case, the generated future cash flows are ignored
In this scenario, we compare the values between book value and the fair value of machinery, the difference would be the loss on impairment of the asset
In mathematically,
= Book value - fair value
= $6.5 million - $4.0 million
= $2.5 million
2. In this case, the sum of future cash flows is exceeded than the book value. So, no impairment loss would be recognized i.e zero amount
Answer:
$2,584.34
Explanation:
we can use the present value of an ordinary formula to calculate this:
present value = annual payment x annuity factor
- present value = $21,000
- PV annuity factor, 8.25%, 14 periods = 8.12586
annual payment = present value / annuity factor = $21,000 / 8.12586 = $2,584.34
When the interest rates are not whole number, e.g. 4%, instead of trying to use a present value annuity table, you should look online for annuity calculators that will calculate the annuity factors for you.
