Answer:
m = 4
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
Suppose we have a random number A.
The multiplicative inverse of A is a number X such that:
A*X = 1
When we work with real numbers, X = 1/A
Then:
A*(1/A) = A/A = 1
This means that (1/A) is the multiplicative inverse of A.
Where we need to have A ≠ 0, because we can not divide by 0.
Now we want to find the multiplicative inverse of the numbers:
2: Here the inverse is (1/2) = 0.5
1/5: Here the inverse is (1/(1/5)) = (5/1) = 5
-4: Herre the inverse is (1/(-4)) = -(1/4) = -0.25
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Since g(x) is f(x-2), every time there is a "x" in the f(x) equation, substitute "x-2". So g(x) would be (x-2)^2-2(x-2)+8. Use the method of trial and error: substitute x as 1,-1, and 3, until you found the right vertex. The answer is B (3,7).
Well the pattern is moving 2 decimal places to the left to make it smaller so it starts off with 3,400,000. 34,000. Then 340. 3.4 and then .034.
ANSWER: 1) 340 2) .034
I think it’s D but not completely sure!