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seraphim [82]
3 years ago
13

Help me plz!!!!!!!!!!!

Mathematics
2 answers:
svetlana [45]3 years ago
7 0
The first one is the answer
Ierofanga [76]3 years ago
4 0
The first answer. the -14x shows that he is spending money
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Which of the following is the final step in bisecting a line segment?
yulyashka [42]

Answer:

B) Mark the intersection points of the arcs, and draw a line through those two points.

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3 years ago
What is the length of bd?
Blizzard [7]
12. Since the length of DC is half of 10, which is 5 and using Pythagorean, it can be said 13^2 = x^2 + 5^2 so x^2 is 144
3 0
3 years ago
at the start of 2014 lucys house was worth 200000. the value of the house is increased by 5% every year. work out the value of h
Galina-37 [17]

Answer:

231525

Step-by-step explanation:

2014 = 200,000

Start of 2015

200,000 x 1.05 = 210,000


Start of 2016

210 x 1.05 = 220,500


Start of 2017

220,000 x 1.05 = 231,525

8 0
3 years ago
Suppose you have two urns with poker chips in them. Urn I contains two red chips and four white chips. Urn II contains three red
Neporo4naja [7]

Answer:

Multiple answers

Step-by-step explanation:

The original urns have:

  1. Urn 1 = 2 red + 4 white = 6 chips
  2. Urn 2 = 3 red + 1 white = 4 chips

We take one chip from the first urn, so we have:

The probability of take a red one is : \frac{1}{3} (2 red from 6 chips(2/6=1/2))

For a white one is: \frac{2}{3}(4 white from 6 chips(4/6=(2/3))

Then we put this chip into the second urn:

We have two possible cases:

  • First if the chip we got from the first urn was white. The urn 2 now has 3 red + 2 whites = 5 chips
  • Second if the chip we got from the first urn was red. The urn two now has 4 red + 1 white = 5 chips

If we select a chip from the urn two:

  • In the first case the probability of taking a white one is of:  \frac{2}{5} = 40%  ( 2 whites of 5 chips)
  • In the second case the probability of taking a white one is of:  \frac{1}{5} = 20%  ( 1 whites of 5 chips)

This problem is a dependent event because the final result depends of the first chip we got from the urn 1.

For the fist case we multiply :

\frac{4}{6} x \frac{2}{5} = \frac{4}{15} = 26.66%   ( \frac{4}{6} the probability of taking a white chip from the urn 1, \frac{2}{5}  the probability of taking a white chip from urn two)

For the second case we multiply:

\frac{1}{3} x \frac{1}{5} = \frac{1}{30} = .06%   ( \frac{1}{3} the probability of taking a red chip from the urn 1, \frac{1}{5}   the probability of taking a white chip from the urn two)

8 0
3 years ago
Pls pls help ???!!!!
Blizzard [7]

Answer 3x3.4

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
2 years ago
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