Answer:
The answer is: Edgar will receive $37,000
Explanation:
- Dowd's share of the company's losses is $80,000
- Edgar's share of the company's losses is $60,000
- Frost's share of the company's losses is $40,000
- Grant's share of the company's losses is $20,000
But since Grant is not willing to give more money to the partnership to cover his losses, the $9,000 difference must be divided by the remaining three partners. So they will divide Grant's losses as follows:
- Dowd's share of the Grant's losses is $3,600
- Edgar's share of the Grant's losses is $2,700
- Frost's share of the Grant's losses is $1,800
Then you add up all the losses the three remaining partners had:
- Dowd' total losses $83,600
- Edgar's total losses $62,700
- Frost's total losses $21,800
So when the partnership was dissolved, Edgar should have received $100,000 (capital) - $62,700 (total losses) = $37,200
I selected answer A since they probably rounded down Edgar's share to $37,000 (nearest possible choice).
Answer:
Goodwill
Explanation:
Goodwill is an intangible asset, reported on the balance sheet asset side. It is used yearly for the impairment tests.
When the company purchase another company and its purchase price is more than the fair value of the net asset so the excess amount would be called as a goodwill
The fair value of the net asset is come from subtracting the
= Company assets - company liabilities
Answer:
d) 34.17
Explanation:
we must first calculate the total overhead expenses = $120,000 (ordering and receiving) + $297,000 (machine setup) + $1,500,000 (machining) + $1,200,000 (assembly parts) + $300,000 (inspection) = $3,417,000
since overhead is applied based on direct labor hours, then the predetermined overhead rate = total overhead expenses / total direct labor hours = $3,417,000 / 100,000 labor hours = $34.17 per labor hour
False because the base is 6 and the exponent is 4
Answer:
The firm shouldn't purchase the machine because the IRR is less than the required minimum
Explanation:
Internal rate of return is the discount rate that equates the after tax cash flows from an investment to the amount invested
IRR can be calculated using a financial calcuator
Cash flow in year 0 = $-1.25 million.
Cash flow in year 1 = $210,000
Cash flow in year 2 to 5 = $350,000
IRR = 8.51%
The firm shouldn't purchase the machine because the IRR is less than the required minimum
To find the IRR using a financial calculator:
1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.
2. After inputting all the cash flows, press the IRR button and then press the compute button
