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gogolik [260]
3 years ago
6

Sage Company is operating at 90% of capacity and is currently purchasing a part used in its manufacturing operations for $15.00

per unit. The unit cost for the business to make the part is $22.00, including fixed costs, and $12.00, excluding fixed costs. If 38,423 units of the part are normally purchased during the year but could be manufactured using unused capacity, what would be the amount of differential cost increase or decrease from making the part rather than purchasing it?
Business
1 answer:
UNO [17]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

$115,269 decrease

Explanation:

Below are the following information given in the question.

Purchase price = $15

Variable cost per unit = $12

Fixed cost per unit = $10. i.e $22-$10

Production in units = 38,423

N.B. As in the above scenario, we will need to factor in the variable cost per unit only in order to determine whether it is convenient to make the part in house or purchase it. Also, we will have to ignore fixed costs because of the fact that it is constant in the option of whether to buy or make part in house.

Therefore,

Option at purchasing/Buying

= $38,423 × $15

= $576,345

Option at making the part in house

= $38,423 × $12

= $461,076

Cost difference is therefore = $115,269 decrease

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nalin [4]

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8 0
4 years ago
Porter Company uses standard costs for its manufacturing division. Standards specify 0.1 direct labor hours per unit of product.
kkurt [141]

Answer:

1,370.85 Unfavorable

Explanation:

Standard rate :

= Budgeted variable overhead costs ÷ Budgeted direct labor hours

= $13500 ÷ 640

Direct labor hours = $21.09 per direct labor hour

Standard time to produce goods :

= Budgeted direct labor hours  ÷ Production volume

= 640 ÷ 6,400

= 0.10 hours

VOH Efficiency Variance

= ( SH − AH ) × SR

where,

SH are standard direct labor hours allowed

AH are the actual direct labor hours

SR is the standard variable overhead rate

(SH − AH ) × SR

= [(4,200 × 0.10) - 485] × $21.09

= (420 - 485) × $21.09

= 1,370.85 Unfavorable

5 0
3 years ago
wants to have a weighted average cost of capital of 9.0 percent. The firm has an after-tax cost of debt of 6.0 percent and a cos
kogti [31]

Answer:

33.33%

Explanation:

WACC can be calculated using the following formula:

WACC = Ke * (E/V)       +    Kd(1-T) * (D/V)

Here

V = Market Value of Equity + Market Value of Debt

Or simple we can write it as:

V = E + D

kd(1-T) is after tax cost of debt which is given in the question and is 6%.

Ke = 9% cost of equity

WACC = 9%

So by putting values we have:

9% = 11% * (E/V) +  6% * (D/V)

Which means:

0.09 = 0.11(E/V) +  0.06(D/V)

By multiplying by (V/E), we have:

0.09(V/E) = 0.11 + 0.06(D/E)

As we know that the V/E is just the equity multiplier, which is equal to:

V/E = 1 + D/E

So by putting value we have:

0.09(D/E + 1) = 0.11 + 0.06(D/E)

Now, we can solve for D/E as:

0.09(D/E) + 0.09 = 0.11 + 0.06(D/E)

0.09(D/E) - 0.06(D/E) = 0.11 - 0.09

0.03(D/E) = 0.03

(D/E) = 0.02 / 0.03 = 33.33%

4 0
3 years ago
31. If a company initially records the purchase of supplies to the supplies expende account, the mount of the adjusting entry ma
scoundrel [369]

We can actually deduce here that the amount of the adjusting entry that was made at the end of an accounting period will be equal to the supplies on hand at the end of the period.

<h3>What is accounting period?</h3>

An accounting period is actually known to be the period of time that a particular accounting function is covered. It can be a fiscal year, quarterly, monthly or even weekly.

We see here that the amount of the adjusting entry that was made at the end of an accounting period will be equal to the supplies on hand at the end of the period.

Learn more about accounting period on brainly.com/question/26533843

#SPJ12

6 0
2 years ago
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