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natka813 [3]
3 years ago
6

Midtown antiques has found that sales has decreased 6% from last year. Sales this year are $144,974 find the amount of last year

s sales
Mathematics
1 answer:
riadik2000 [5.3K]3 years ago
3 0
8698 is the answer to this question
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Coach William orders 19boxes of cones. The district already has 86 cones but 19 are damaged to use. After the order arrives how
zloy xaker [14]
86 cone that is the answer to your question because 86+19 is 105 minus 19 it is 86 so the answer is 86
7 0
4 years ago
Find the total number of sides (y)
riadik2000 [5.3K]

Answer:

There are 24 sides.

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 6 figures and in each figure there are 4 sides

So,

4 × 6 = 24

Thus, There are 24 sides.

 

<u>-TheUnknownScientist</u><u> 72</u>

6 0
2 years ago
Elisa has 10 gold colored coins and 6 silver colored coins. She selects 2 coins with replacement. What is the probability she se
amm1812

Answer: \frac{9}{64}

Step-by-step explanation:

n(gold colored coins) = 10

n(silver colored coins) = 6

Total number of coins = 16

since there is replacement , the probability she selects 2 silver colored coins will be :

\frac{6}{16} x \frac{6}{16}

= \frac{3}{8} x \frac{3}{8}

= \frac{9}{64}

Therefore : the probability she selects 2 silver colored coins is \frac{9}{64}

3 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
with the salary cap in the NFL, it is said that on "any given Sunday" any team could beat any other team. If we assume every wee
prohojiy [21]

Answer:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X

And we can find the individual probability like this:

P(X=0) = 16C0 (0.5)^0 (1-0.5)^{16-0} = 0.0000153

And replacing we got:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming the following question: With the salary cap in the NFL, it is said that on any given Sunday any team could beat any other team. If we assume every week of the 16 week season a team has a 50% chance of winning, what is the probability that a team will have at least 1 win?

Previous concepts  

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".  

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:  

X \sim Binom(n=16, p=0.5)  

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:  

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}  

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:  

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}  

And we want this probability:

P(X \geq 1)

And using the complement rule we got:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X

And we can find the individual probability like this:

P(X=0) = 16C0 (0.5)^0 (1-0.5)^{16-0} = 0.0000153

And replacing we got:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X

7 0
3 years ago
What is the solution to this liner equation d-10-2d+7=8+d-10
Vladimir79 [104]
Group like terms then
add like terms

d-2d-10+7=8-10+d
-d-3=-2+d
add d to both sides
-3=-2+2d
add 2 to both sides
-1=2d
divide both sides by 2
-1/2=d
5 0
4 years ago
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