Answer:
q = 2,95 10-6 C
Explanation:
The magnetic force on a particle is described by the equation
F = q v x B
Where bold indicate vectors
Let's make the vector product
vxB =![\left[\begin{array}{ccc}i&j&k\\-3&4&12\\0&0&-0.13\end{array}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bccc%7Di%26j%26k%5C%5C-3%264%2612%5C%5C0%260%26-0.13%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D)
v x B = 1.20 106 [i ^ (4 0.130) - j ^ (3 0.130)]
vx B = 1.20 106 [0.52 i ^ - 0.39j ^]
As they give us the force module, let's use Pythagoras' theorem,
|v xB | =1.20 10⁶ √( 0.52² + 0.39²)
|v x B| = 1.20 10⁶ 0.65
v xB = 0.78 10⁶
Let's replace and calculate
2.30 = q 0.78 10⁶
q = 2.3 / 0.78 106
q = 2,95 10-6 C
The moment of inertia is 
Explanation:
The total moment of inertia of the system is the sum of the moment of inertia of the rod + the moment of inertia of the two balls.
The moment of inertia of the rod about its centre is given by
where
M = 24 kg is the mass of the rod
L = 0.96 m is the length of the rod
Substituting,
The moment of inertia of one ball is given by
where
m = 50 kg is the mass of the ball
is the distance of each ball from the axis of rotation
So we have
Therefore, the total moment of inertia of the system is
Learn more about inertia:
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Answer:
Yes, in case of uniform velocity
Explanation:
This is the case of uniform velocity. If a body covers equal displacement in equal intervals of time, then the velocity of a body is said to be ‘Uniform Velocity’. It meas that the velocity of a body remains constant during the motion and it does not change.
Since, acceleration is defined as the rate of change of velocity.
Therefore, if there is no change in velocity or in other words the change in velocity is zero, then the acceleration is also zero.
a = ΔV/t = 0/t
a = 0 m/s²
So, the acceleration of the body is 0 m/s², but it has a uniform velocity
<u>Hence, it is possible for an object that, object with zero acceleration have velocity, which is the case case of uniform velocity.</u>
Answer:
The magnitude of the force exerted by the ball on the catcher is 1.9 × 10² N
Explanation:
Hi there!
Let´s find the acceleration of the ball that makes it stop when caught by the catcher. The acceleration can be calculated from the equation of velocity considering that it is constant:
v = v0 + a · t
We know that initially the ball was traveling at 25 m/s, so, if we consider the position of the catcher as the origin of the frame of reference, then, v0 = -25 m/s. We also know that it takes the ball 20 ms (0.02 s) to stop (i.e. to reach a velocity of 0). Then using the equation of velocity:
v = v0 + a · t
0 m/s = -25 m/s + a · 0.020 s
25 m/s/ 0.020 s = a
Now, using the second law of Newton, we can calculate the force exerted by the catcher on the ball:
F = m · a
Where:
F = force.
m = mass of the ball.
a = acceleration.
F = 0.150 kg · (25 m/s/ 0.020 s) = 1.9 × 10² N
According to Newton´s third law, the force exerted by the ball on the catcher will be of equal magnitude but opposite direction. Then, the force exerted by the ball on the catcher will have a magnitude of 1.9 × 10² N.
Equilibrium refers to a state in which all of the external forces on an object all balance each other such that there is no net effect (net force equals 0). An object in equilibrium will not experience acceleration, and will either remain at rest, or continue moving at a constant velocity. Here's a simple example, pick up a book (or any random object) and hold it up in the air. The book is now in equilibrium, the downwards force of gravity is perfectly countered by the upwards force that you are applying to it. Notice that the object neither falls nor goes upwards (i.e. no acceleration). Now let go of the book, notice how it falls downwards till it hits the ground (or whatever was beneath it). That is because without the upwards force applied by your hand, the object is no longer in equilibrium, and the force of gravity takes over until it is in equilibrium again.
