Which of the following would an economist most likely classify as a need

benjamin company has the following results of operations for the pat tyear. A foreign company (whose sales will not affect Benja

maks197457 [2]

Answer:

Increase by $5,975

Explanation:

Calculation to determine the profit

First step is to calculate the Direct Material and Direct labor per unit

Direct Material and Direct labor per unit=$100,000/16,000

Direct Material and Direct labor per unit=$6.25

Second step is to calculate the Relevant Variable Overhead

Relevant Variable Overhead = 20,000 * 20%

Relevant Variable Overhead= $4,000

Third step is to calculate the

Relevant Variable Cost per unit = $4,000 / 16,000

Relevant Variable Cost per unit= $0.25

Fourth step is to calculate the Total Relevant Variable cost per unit

Total Relevant Variable cost per unit = $6.25 + $0.25

Total Relevant Variable cost per unit= $6.5

Fifth step is to calculate the Relevant Contribution Margin per unit

Relevant Contribution Margin per unit = $8.05 - $6.5

Relevant Contribution Margin per unit= $1.55

Sixth step is to calculate the Total Contribution

Total Contribution = 4,500 * $1.55

Total Contribution= $6,975

Now let calculate the profit using this formula

Profit = Contribution - Fixed Cost

Let plug in the formula

Profit = $6,975 - $650 - $350

Profit = $5,975

Therefore If Benjamin accepts the offer, its profits will:Increase by $5,975

5 0

2 years ago

Many older companies have changed from a defined-benefit plan to a(n) ________, which is a retirement plan where workers are cre

avanturin [10]

Cash balance plan is a retirement plan where workers are credited with a part of their pay annually and a predetermined rate of interest.

<h3><u>What is a Cash balance Plan?</u></h3>

A defined-benefit pension plan with a lifetime annuity option is referred to as a "cash balance pension plan."

<h3><u>What are some features of Cash balance plans?</u></h3>

Based on defined-benefit needs, the financing caps, funding requirements, and investment risk are established.
Like a defined-contribution plan, this type of plan is managed on an individual account basis.
The advantage of these programs is that age-based contribution caps are available.
Pretax contributions enable those 60 and older to save significantly more money each year than younger people.

You can learn more about defined pension plans work using the following link:

brainly.com/question/15241364

#SPJ4

6 0

1 year ago

On January 15, Year 5, Rico Co. declared its annual cash dividend on common stock for the year ended January 31, Year 5. The div

11Alexandr11 [23.1K]

Answer:

January 15, Year 5.

Explanation:

The Rico should decrease retained earnings by the amount of the dividend is declaration date.

The declaration date refers to date the board of directors of a company makes a formal announcement of when the next dividend will be paid. The declaration is therefore also referred to as the announcement date.

On the declaration date, liability account known as dividend payable account is created and credited, while the retained earnings is debited or reduced by the amount of the dividend.

From the question, January 15, Year 5 is the announcement date and it is therefore the date Rico should decrease retained earnings by the amount of the dividend.

3 0

3 years ago

Caliber Corp. currently pays no dividends because it requires its internally generated funds be used to fund a research intensiv

Andreyy89

Answer:

Do = $2.00

D1= Do(1+g)1 = $2(1+0.2)1 = $2.40

D2= Do(1+g)2 = $2(1+0.2)2 = $2.88

D3= Do(1+g)3 = $2(1+0.2)3 = $3.456

D4= Do(1+g)4 = $2(1+0.2)4 = $4.1472

D5= Do(1+g)5 = $2(1+0.2)5 = $4.97664

PHASE 1

V1 = D1/1+ke + D2/(1+ke)2 + D3/(1+ke)3 +D4/(1+ke)4 + D5/(1+ke)5

V1 = 2.40/(1+0.15) + 2.88/(1+0.15)2 + 3.456/(1+0.15)3 + 4.1472/(1+0.15)4 + 4.97664/(1+0.15)5

V1 = $2.0870 + $2.1777 + $2.2723 + $2.3712 + $2.4742

V1 = $11.3824

PHASE 2

V2 = DN(1+g)/ (Ke-g )(1+k e)n

V2 = $4.97664(1+0.02)/(0.15-0.02)(1+0.02)5

V2 = $5.0762/0.1435

V2 = $35.3742

Po = V1 + V2

Po = $11.3824 + $35.3742

Po = $46.76

Explanation: This is a typical question on valuation of shares with two growth rate regimes. In the first phase, the value of the share would be obtained by capitalizing the dividend for each year by the cost of equity of the company. The dividend for year 1 to year 5 was obtained by subjecting the current dividend paid(Do) to growth rate. The growth rate In the first regime was 20%.

In the second phase, the value of shares would be calculated by taking cognizance of the second growth rate of 2%. In this phase, the last dividend paid in year 5 would be discounted at the appropriate discount rate after it has been adjusted for growth.

5 0

3 years ago

Which quality of an asset makes it more appropriate for the fair value principle rather than the historical cost principle?

Alchen [17]

Answer and Explanation:

Fair value refers to the current market price of the asset while historical cost is the cost at which the asset was acquired. Fair market value will always be higher than historical cost so it reflects the actual worth of the asset.

One of the qualities that makes valuing current assets at fair value rather than historical cost is the availability and reliability of current market price or fair value of current assets.

8 0

3 years ago