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GarryVolchara [31]
3 years ago
6

On January 15, Year 5, Rico Co. declared its annual cash dividend on common stock for the year ended January 31, Year 5. The div

idend was paid on February 9, Year 5, to shareholders of record as of January 28, Year 5. On what date should Rico decrease retained earnings by the amount of the dividend?
Business
1 answer:
11Alexandr11 [23.1K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

January 15, Year 5.

Explanation:

The Rico should decrease retained earnings by the amount of the dividend is declaration date.

The declaration date refers to date the board of directors of a company makes a formal announcement of when the next dividend will be paid. The declaration is therefore also referred to as the announcement date.

On the declaration date, liability account known as dividend payable account is created and credited, while the retained earnings is debited or reduced by the amount of the dividend.

From the question, January 15, Year 5 is the announcement date and it is therefore the date Rico should decrease retained earnings by the amount of the dividend.

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jonny [76]
<h2>The two of the following tips that are important to remember when writing a resume are: A) be clear and concise in the descriptions you use</h2><h2>D) use bullet points to organize your thoughts </h2>

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7 0
3 years ago
Your​ company, which has a MARR of​ 12%, is considering the following two investment​ alternatives:
mote1985 [20]

Answer:

future worth:

project A  11,615.26

project B  12,139.18‬

It should choose project B as their future value is greater

IRR of project A: 13.54%

We should remember that the IRR is the rate at which the net value is zero thus, equals the inflow with the cash outlay

It is calculate with excel or financial calculator due to the complex of the formula.

Explanation:

Project A

We calculate the future value of the cash flow per year and cost as we are asked for future value. The salvage value is already at the end of the project life so we don't adjust it.

Revenues future value

C \times \frac{(1+r)^{time} -1}{rate} = FV\\  

C 15,000

time 8

rate 0.12

15000 \times \frac{(1+0.12)^{8} -1}{0.12} = FV\\  

FV $184,495.3970  

Expenses future value

C \times \frac{(1+r)^{time} -1}{rate} = FV\\

C 3,000

time 10

rate 0.12

3000 \times \frac{(1+0.12)^{10} -1}{0.12} = FV\\  

FV $52,646.2052  

Cost future value

Principal \: (1+ r)^{time} = Amount  

Principal 40,000.00

time 10.00

rate 0.12000

40000 \: (1+ 0.12)^{10} = Amount  

Amount 124,233.93

Net future worth:

-124,233.93 cost - 52,646.21 expenses + 184,495.40 revenues + 4,000 salvage value

future worth 11,615.26

Project B

cost:

Principal \: (1+ r)^{time} = Amount  

Principal 60,000.00

time 10.00

rate 0.12000

60000 \: (1+ 0.12)^{10} = Amount  

Amount 186,350.89

expenses 52,646.21 (same as previous)

revenues

C \times \frac{(1+r)^{time} }{rate} = FV\\  

C 24,000

time 7

rate 0.12

24000 \times \frac{(1+0.12)^{7} -1}{0.12} = FV\\  

FV $242,136.2815  

TOTAL

242,136.28 + 9,000 - 52,646.21 - 186,350.89 = 12,139.18‬

Internal rate of return of project A

we write the time and cash flow for each period.

Time Cash flow

0 -40,000

1 -3,000

2 -3,000

3 12,000

4 12,000

5 12,000

6 12,000

7 12,000

8 12,000

9 12,000

10 16,000

IRR 13.54%

Then we write on excel the function =IRR(select the cashflow)

and we got the IRR of the project

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4 years ago
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Hunter-Best [27]
The formula is
I=prt
I interest paid 1120
p principle 32000
T time 4/12
R annual percentage interest rate?
Solve for r
R=I÷pt
R=1,120÷(32,000×(4÷12))
R=0.105×100
R=10.5%
6 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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