<u>Answer:</u> D. 60,000 shares at $5 per share
<u>Explanation:</u>
The company has 15,000 shares and offers to split the stock four-for-one. It means that the there will be four times the number of shares but the total value of the shares, before and after the split, would remain the same.
The total value of shares = $15,000 x 20 = $300,000
Since the stock split is 4-for-1, the number of shares would be = 15000 x 4
= 60,000 shares
Therefore the total value of shares divided by the number of shares will give us the par value of the shares:
300,000 / 60,000 = $5
Answer:
C. $682,000
Explanation:
Given the above information, the computation of cash dividend is seen below;
Beginning retained earnings (2020) + net income - Stock dividend - Cash dividend = Retained earnings
$1,440,000 + $1,008,000 - ($499,000 + $99,000) - Cash dividend = $1,168,000
$2,448,000 - $598,000 - Cash dividend = $1,168,000
Cash dividend = $2,448,000 - $598,000 - $1,168,000
Cash dividend = $682,000
Answer:
a. Income from subsidiary will be lower by the amount of the ending inventory profit multiplied by the noncontolling interest percentage for downstream transfers.
Explanation:
When we transfer inventory from subsidiary to holding there will be some profit element included in cost. so when we consolidate the account of subsidiary to its holding at the time of reporting we should removed that unrealised profit included in the inventory.
Answer:
$1,161.46
Explanation:
In order to determine the current bond price we can use an excel spreadsheet and the present value formula: =PV(Rate,Nper,PMT,FV)
where:
- Nper = 14 x 2 = 28 (15 year bond issued 1 year ago = 14 years)
- Rate = 5.8% / 2 = 2.9% (semiannual payments)
-
PMT = ($1,000 x 7.5%) / 2 = $37.50
- FV = $1,000 (face value of bonds)
-
PV = ?
Current price =PV(Rate,Nper,PMT,FV) =PV(2.9%,28,37.50,1000) = $1,161.46
Answer:
$1,160
Explanation:
<em>Hie, I have attached the full question as an image below.</em>
The firm usually makes provision for certain amounts so as not to overstate their profits. This expected as it is prudent than reporting profits that might never occur. Provisions of Uncollectible accounts are examples of such amounts.
An increase in Uncollectible amount compared to the opening balance is treated as an Expense in the Income Statement whilst a decrease is treated as an Income.
For this question, we are told that Uncollectible accounts are determined by the percent-of-sales method to be 4% of credit sales. Thus calculation of the 2012 uncollectible-account expense is as follows :
Credit Sales - 2012 = $44,000
Beginning Balance in allowances = $600
Therefore,
Uncollectable Amount (2012) = Credit Sales x percent-of-sales
= $44,000 x 4%
= $1,760
The Uncollectable amount has increased by $1,160 ($1,760 - $600)
Conclusion :
The collectible-account expense for 2012 is $1,160
