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Kipish [7]
3 years ago
11

Find the missing value so that the two points have a slope 1/2 (7, 2 )and (3,y)

Mathematics
2 answers:
MrRissso [65]3 years ago
6 0
(7,2) , (3,0) 7-3=4 as denominator, and 2-0=2 as the numerator equaling 2/4 which is 1/2
balandron [24]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The missing y -coordinate is 0.

Step-by-step explanation:

Here we know the slope but must find the y-coefficient of one of the points.

                                                         y - 2

The slope is m = 1/2 = rise / run = ----------

                                                         3 - 7

                y - 2

or   1/2 = ----------           which simplifies to   -2 = y - 2, which yields y = 0.

                   -4

The missing y -coordinate is 0.

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3 years ago
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Simplify the complex numbers using de Moivre's Theorem and match them with their solutions.
alexandr1967 [171]

For the numbers in a+bi form, convert to polar form:


1+i=\sqrt2\dfrac{1+i}{\sqrt2}=\sqrt2\left(\cos\dfrac\pi4+i\sin\dfrac\pi4\right)

By DeMoivre's theorem,

(1+i)^5=(\sqrt2)^5\left(\cos\dfrac{5\pi}4+i\sin\dfrac{5\pi}4\right)=4\sqrt2\dfrac{-1-i}{\sqrt2}=-4-4i


-1+i=\sqrt2\dfrac{-1+i}{\sqrt2}=\sqrt2\left(\cos\dfrac{3\pi}4+i\sin\dfrac{3\pi}4}\right)

\implies(-1+i)^6=(\sqrt2)^6\left(\cos\dfrac{18\pi}4+i\sin\dfrac{18\pi}4\right)=8i


\sqrt3+i=2\dfrac{\sqrt3+i}2=2\left(\cos\dfrac\pi6+i\sin\dfrac\pi6\right)

\implies2(\sqrt3+i)^{10}=2^{11}\left(\cos\dfrac{10\pi}6+i\sin\dfrac{10\pi}6\right)=2^{11}\dfrac{1-i\sqrt3}2=2^{10}(1-i\sqrt3)


For the numbers already in polar form, DeMoivre's theorem can be applied directly:


2\left(\cos20^\circ+i\sin20^\circ\right)^3=2\left(\cos60^\circ+i\sin60^\circ\right)=2\dfrac{1+i\sqrt3}2=1+i\sqrt3


2\left(\cos\dfrac\pi4+i\sin\dfrac\pi4\right)^4=2(\cos\pi+i\sin\pi)=-2


At second glance, I think the 2s in the last two numbers should also be getting raised to the 3rd and 4th powers:


\left(2(\cos20^\circ+i\sin20^\circ)\right)^3=8\left(\cos60^\circ+i\sin60^\circ\right)=4+4\sqrt3

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The measurement of the triangles third side is 78 !


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Which fraction is equivalent to One-sixth?
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Answer:

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Because 1/6 is 4/24 simplified.

To prove this, all you have to do is try simplifying 4/24 yourself. To do that, we are going to use 4 to divide both the numerator and the denominator because 4 is a common factor of 4 and 24.

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So 4 divided by 4 is 1, and 24 divided by 4 is 6

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3 years ago
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