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choli [55]
3 years ago
13

The return on the market portfolio is currently​ 12%. Mobile Phone Corporation stockholders require a rate of return of​ 30% and

the stock has a beta of 3.2. According to​ CAPM, determine the riskminus−free rate.
Business
1 answer:
Triss [41]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The risk free will be 3.82%

Explanation:

We post the CAPM formula and how given data

Ke= r_f + \beta (r_m-r_f)  

risk free             ?

market rate 0.12

premium market market rate - risk free ?

beta(non diversifiable risk) 3.2

Ke = 0.3

Now we post the know values and solve for risk free

0.3= risk-free + 3.2 (0.12 - riskfree)  

0.3 = risk-free + 3.2 \times 0.12 - 3.2riskfree

0.3 = 0.384 - 2.2riskfree

0.3-0.384 = -2.2riskfree

-0.084/-2.2= riskfree

risk free = 0.0381818181818182‬ = 3.82%

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Luzadis Company makes furniture using the latest automated technology. The company uses a job-order costing system and applies m
zmey [24]

Answer:

Answer:

1. Overhead over applied= $521,000

2. Factory Overhead   Dr.     $ 521,000

Cost Of Goods Sold Cr.    $ 521,000

3. Work in Process,  (ratio)   $521,000 *    7%=  36,470

Finished Goods,              $521,000   *     19%=  98,990

Cost of Goods Sold       $521,000    *    74%=  385,540

Total                        $521,000     100%

4. Difference between the two CGS= $ 136,060

Explanation:

Predetermined Overhead  Costs $1,152,000

Estimated activity level of 72,000 machine-hours

Overhead rate= $ 1152,000/ 72,000= $ 16 per hour

Manufacturing overhead cost $551,000

Actual hours = 67,000

Overhead applied to WIP = 67,000 * 16= $ 1072,000

Overhead over applied= $ 1072,000 - $551000= $521,000

Part 2:

Factory Overhead   Dr.     $ 521,000

Cost Of Goods Sold Cr.    $ 521,000

The Cost of Goods Sold is credited and Factory overhead is debited.

Part 3:

Suppose the overhead is applied in the following ratio

Work in Process,  (ratio)   $37,520          7%   (37520/536,00*100%)

Finished Goods,              $101,840         19%      (101840/536,00*100%)

Cost of Goods Sold       $396, 640        74%     (396,640/536,00*100%)

Total                        $536,000     100%

The  overhead over applied  would be allocated in the following way applying the same ratio as determined above.

Work in Process,  (ratio)   $521,000 *    7%=  36,470

Finished Goods,              $521,000   *     19%=  98,990

Cost of Goods Sold       $521,000    *    74%=  385,540

Total                        $521,000     100%

Part 4:

Cost of Goods Sold ( overhead applied of $396, 640) $1,472,600

Less    Overhead   overapplied      $ 521,000

CGS = $ 951,000

Cost of Goods Sold (overhead applied to WIP & FG) $1,472,600

Less   Overapplied Overhead $ 385,540

CGS=  $ 1087,060

Difference between the two CGS = $ 1087,060- $ 951,000= $ 136,060

5 0
3 years ago
The broad goal of __________ is to identify and define both marketing problems and opportunities and to generate and improve mar
amid [387]

Answer:

D. Marketing research

8 0
3 years ago
What Is margin of safety?
skelet666 [1.2K]

Answer:

Margin of safety is a principle of investing in which an investor only purchases securities when their market price is significantly below their intrinsic value. ... Alternatively, in accounting, the margin of safety, or safety margin, refers to the difference between actual sales and break-even sales

5 0
2 years ago
Your broker called earlier today and offered you the opportunity to invest in a security. As a friend, she suggested that you co
Simora [160]

Answer:

Everything else being equal, you should invest if the discounted value of the security's expected future cash flows is greater than or equal to the current cost of the security.

Explanation:

You would use the capital budgeting technique known as net present value (NPV) . In order for a project or investment to be accepted, the sum of the present values of future cash inflows generated by the project should be greater than the initial amount invested or the initial cost. If the PV of the future cashflows is lower than the initial cost of capital, the investment would be rejected. On the other hand, if they are equal, the investor would be indifferent between accepting or rejecting the investment.

3 0
3 years ago
The S&P 500 index delivered a return of 20%, -10%, 20%, and 5% over four successive years.
sladkih [1.3K]

Answer:

C) 8.75%

Explanation:

Number of periods = 4 years

Given return rates = 20%, -10%, 20%, and 5%

To obtain the arithmetic average annual return, add the return rates given for all periods and divide the sum by the number of periods.

AAR = \frac{20-10+ 20+ 5}{4} \\AAR=8.75\%

Over four years, the S&P 500 index delivered an arithmetic average annual return of 8.75%.

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3 years ago
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