Answer: Price of stock at year end =$53
Explanation:
we first compute the Expected rate of return using the CAPM FORMULAE that
Expected return =risk-free rate + Beta ( Market return - risk free rate)
Expected return=6% + 1.2 ( 16%-6%)
Expected return= 0.06 + 1.2 (10%)
Expected return=0.06+ 0.12
Expected return=0.18
Using the formulae Po= D1 / R-g to find the growth rate
Where Po= current price of stock at $50
D1= Dividend at $6 at end of year
R = Expected return = 0.18
50= 6/ 0.18-g
50(0.18-g) =6
9-50g=6
50g=9-6
g= 3/50
g=0.06 = 6%
Now that we have gotten the growth rate and expected return, we can now determine the price the investors are expected to sell the stock at the end of year.
Price of stock = D( 1-g) / R-g
= 6( 1+0.06)/ 0.18 -0.06
=6+0.36/0.12
=6.36/0.12= $53
Answer:
C. A risk averse investor would choose the economy in which stock returns are independent because risk can be diversified away in a large portfolio.
Explanation:
if stock prices move together, (positive correlation), the volatility of the portfolio will be higher. Higher volatility means higher risk. This is the case with the first economy.
In the second economy however, the stocks are independent of each other meaning there is zero correlation between stocks and hence the portfolio volatility will be much lesser.
As a risk-averse investor you will prefer the portfolio with lower volatility for the same expected return.
True there are some companies that don't allow you to ware some times of perfume or cologne
Answer:
none of the above
Explanation:
because the organization must know how much they own
Answer:
$710.84 million
Explanation:
Net income = $35 million
Depreciation = $20 million
Capital expenditures = $7 million
Tax rate = 21%
D/E ratio = 0.4
Growth rate = 6%
Equity beta = 1.25
So, firm's asset beta = Equity beta/(1 + D/E*(1-T))
= 1.25/(1 + 0.4*(1-0.21))
= 0.94985
So, Free Cash Flow to the Firm= NI + Depreciation - Capital expenditures
= 35 + 20 - 7
= $48 million
Risk free rate Rf = 5%
Market risk premium = 7.5%
So, firm cost of capital using CAPM is Rf + Beta*(MRP)
Kc = 5 + 0.94985*7.5
Kc = 12.1239
So, Firms value using constant dividend growth model:
FV = FCF*(1+g)/(Kc-g)
FV = 48*1.06 / 0.121239-0.06
FV = 50.88 / 0.061239
FV = 830.8430901876255
FV = $830.84 million
Debt = $120 million
Market Value of equity = FV - Debt
Market Value of equity = $830.84 million - $120 million
Market Value of equity = $710.84 million
