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Afina-wow [57]
4 years ago
9

Write and solve an equation to answer the question 17 is what percent of 68

Mathematics
2 answers:
tatiyna4 years ago
3 0

The correct answer to your equation is 25%.

ioda4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

25%

Step-by-step explanation:

Is means equals and of means multiply

17 = P * 68

Divide each side by 68

17/68 = 68P/68

.25 = P

Change to a percent by multiplying by 100

25% = P

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A bank in the Bay area is considering a training program for its staff. The probability that a new training program will increas
WITCHER [35]

Answer:

P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)') = 1-P(A \cap B)= 1-0.32=0.68

See explanation below.

Step-by-step explanation:

For this case we define first some notation:

A= A new training program will increase customer satisfaction ratings

B= The training program can be kept within the original budget allocation

And for these two events we have defined the following probabilities

P(A) = 0.8, P(B) = 0.2

We are assuming that the two events are independent so then we have the following propert:

P(A \cap B ) = P(A) * P(B)

And we want to find the probability that the cost of the training program is not kept within budget or the training program will not increase the customer ratings so then if we use symbols we want to find:

P(B' \cup A')

And using the De Morgan laws we know that:

(A \cap B)' = A' \cup B'

So then we can write the probability like this:

P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)')

And using the complement rule we can do this:

P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)')= 1-P(A \cap B)

Since A and B are independent we have:

P(A \cap B )=P(A)*P(B) =(0.8*0.4) =0.32

And then our final answer would be:

P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)') = 1-P(A \cap B)= 1-0.32=0.68

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