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Brut [27]
3 years ago
9

An arrangement in which the seller carries back a note executed by the buyer to evidence a debt owed for the purchase of the sel

ler property is referred to as
Business
1 answer:
Tomtit [17]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

self financing

Explanation:

self-financing is an arrangement of taking care of mortgage by the seller instead of by finance institution. In this arrangement mutual understanding is set up between the buyer and seller on mortgage. some amount of money is set aside as down payment by the buyer to the purchaser and the desired installment has made for further deposition of loan.

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Berkshire Inc. uses a periodic inventory system. At the end of 2015, it missed counting some inventory items, resulting in an in
zlopas [31]

Answer:

Assets understated by $510,000, liabilities understated by $153,000 and shareholders' equity understated by $357,000.

Explanation:

An understatement of closing inventory will have the following effects,

First of all the inventory as an asset is understated by $510,000

Second, this inventory was subject to deduction from the Cost of goods sold as, Cost of goods sold = Opening Inventory + Purchases - Closing Inventory.

Since this amount was not subtracted from the CGS, the gross profit and ultimately the Net profits were understated by $510,000.

This will be added in the net profits.

With an increase in net profits, the tax payable amount also increases. This is calculated as 510,000 * 0.30 = $153,000

So total change in profits is = 510,000 - 153,000 = $357,000

While $153,000 is still payable and is recorded as a tax payable liability.

Thus,

Assets understated by $510,000

Liabilities Understated by $153,000 (tax payable)

Share holders equity understated by $357,000 (part of retained profits)

Hope that helps.

6 0
3 years ago
On January 2, 2022, McClelland Company purchased a machine and signed a noninterest-bearing note in payment. The note matures in
tresset_1 [31]

The amount that McClelland Company should record the machine upon purchase is<u> $56,505.</u>

<h3>Recording the transaction</h3>

The proper way to record the transaction based on U.S. GAAP polices is to debit the Machine account with the price of $56,505 as this represents the market value of the machine.

The company should also credit the Notes payable account with $70,000 being the value of the note acquired. A debit will go to the Discount on Note account for $13,495 which is the difference between the note and value of machine.

Find out more on recording Notes Payable at brainly.com/question/17073934.

6 0
1 year ago
Stocks X and Y have the following data. The market risk premium is 5.0% and the risk-free rate is 4.6%. Assuming the stock marke
Nat2105 [25]

Answer:

b. Stock X has the higher dividend yield.

Explanation:

We solve for the cost of equity of each stock using CAMP then, with the gordon model we determinate the price ofthe share expressed in Dividends.

<em><u>Stock X</u></em>

Ke= r_f + \beta (r_m-r_f)

risk free = 0.046

market rate = 0.09

premium market = (market rate - risk free) 0.05

beta(non diversifiable risk) = 1.5

Ke= 0.046 + 1.5 (0.05)

<em>Ke 0.12100</em>

<u><em>Dividend grow model:</em></u>

D/(r-g) = Value of the share

0.121 - 0.06 = 0.061

D/0.061 =<em> 16.39D</em>

<em><u>Stock Y</u></em>

Ke= r_f + \beta (r_m-r_f)

risk free = 0.046

market rate = 0.09

premium market = (market rate - risk free) 0.05

beta(non diversifiable risk) = 0.5

Ke= 0.046 + 0.5 (0.05)

<em>Ke 0.07100</em>

<em><u>Dividend grow model:</u></em>

D/(r-g) = Value of the share

0.071 - 0.06 = 0.011

D / 0.011 = <em>90.90D</em>

The stock X is value 16.39 times his dividends

while stock Y is valued 90.90 times his dividends

Thus, being Dividend Yield the Dividend per share over the price of the share it will be higher on stock X than stock Y

7 0
3 years ago
A man goes all over the country buying large tracts of vacant land, splitting them into smaller parcels, and building identical
Inga [223]

Answer:

developer and a subdivider

3 0
3 years ago
Low Carb Diet Supplement Inc. has two divisions. Division A has a profit of $156,000 on sales of $2,010,000. Division B is able
Agata [3.3K]

Based on the profit margins (returns on sales), the division that is superior is: Division B.

<h3>Profit margins:</h3>

Using this formula

Profit margins=Profit/Sales ×100

Let plug in the formula

Division A

Profit margin=$156,000/$2,010,000×100

Profit margin=7.76%

Division B:

Profit margin=$28,800/$329,000×100

Profit margin=8.75%

Based on the above calculation division B has the highest profit margin of 8.75%.

Inconclusion based on the profit margins (returns on sales), the division that is superior is: Division B.

Learn more about profit margin here:brainly.com/question/10218300

4 0
1 year ago
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