Honor classes are harder and require a B average. Regular classes are easier even though the same material is included in both.
Sidewinder, Inc., has sales of $634,000, costs of $328,000, depreciation expense of $73,000, interest expense of $38,000, and a
OlgaM077 [116]
Answer:
$86,050
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
Sales = $634,000
Costs = $328,000
Depreciation expense = $73,000
Interest expense = $38,000
Tax rate = 21 percent
Dividends paid = $68,000
Now,
EBIT = Sales - Cost - Depreciation
= $634,000 - $328,000 - $73,000
= $233,000
EBT = EBIT - Interest
= $233,000 - $38,000
= $195,000
Net income = EBT - Tax
= $195,000 - (0.21 × $195,000)
= $195,000 - $40,950
= $154,050
Addition to retained earnings = Net income - Dividends
= $154,050 - $68,000
= $86,050
Answer:
c. cash, checking account balances, and travelers' checks.
Explanation:
Money Supply is the concept that means the amount of the liquid financial products and total currency in the market or economy. It is regulated the macro-economically by the monetary policy. So, there are types of measures of money supply or stock:
-M0: narrowly, it means the hard currency in circulation
-MB: it equals M0+ the hard currency which are not technically in circulation and in bank reserves.
-M1: it is the most common one and equals M0 plus checking accounts plus travelers’ checks and other checkable deposits.
-M2: covers M1 and saving accounts and CDs.
-M3: it surrounds the larger deposits.
-MZM: finally, this indicates the money market deposits.
That’s why we could notice that M1 narrowly means the cash, checking account and travelers’ checks.
Help the child see that they themselves can answer what will happen if they come across a situation like so
Answer: An investment that matures in five years
Explanation:
Both investments may be of equal risks, but by virtue of having different maturity dates, they will not be priced the same.
This is because the discount rate (opportunity cost) will discount the maturity value more the longer the investment is such that the present value is lower.
4 year investment
= 1,000 / (1.068)^4
= $768.63
5 year investment
= 1,000 / (1.068)^5
= $719.69
The 5 year investment will have a lower present value and will be charged lower.
