Answer:
Preferred dividend = $8,000
Common stock dividend = $22,000
Explanation:
The computation of dividend is shown below:-
Preferred dividend = Total shares × Total shares of Noncumulative, nonparticipating, preferred stock outstanding
= $100,000 × 0.08
= $8,000
Common stock dividend = Cash dividend - Preferred dividend
= $30,000 - 8,000
= $22,000
Therefore the Preferred dividend is $8,000 and Common stock dividend is $22,000
Answer:
- A. They are more liquid than others in their industry.
- C. They have sufficient quick assets to pay off short-term debt if needed.
Explanation:
The Acid-test and current ratios are used to measure the liquidity of a company with higher figures meaning more liquidity. XYZ Company has a both a higher acid-test and current ratio so they are more liquid than others in their industry.
The Acid-test and current ratio also enable one to find out if a company is able to pay off its current obligations/ liabilities using current assets. With the acid-test ratio being above one, XYZ is able to pay off short-term debt using quick assets.
Based on the ages of those <em>showing interest</em>, these buyers were likely from the generational cohort of:
<h3>What is an Age Group?</h3>
This refers to the group of people who are of similar age ranges which were born during a particular period and today we can say some are Millennials, Gen Z, etc.
With this in mind, we can see that based on the eBay listing, there was the listed sale for an item and because the interested buyers were from an age group which was made up of teenagers, we can state that they were the Gen Y.
Read more about age group here:
brainly.com/question/16180558
Answer:
$60,000
Explanation:
Hansen's annual salary allowance= 30,000
Hernandez's annual salary allowance= 10,000
annual interest allowance of Hensen= 0.1 × 50,000= 5000
annual interest allowance of Hernandez= 0.1 × 50,000= 5000
Remaining balance=100000- 5000-5000-30000-10000= 50000
Share of each partner from remaining balance= 25000
Hensen's income= 25,000+ 5000+ 30000= 60,000
Answer: True
Explanation: <em> Bond-yield-plus-risk-premium method is used if the entity has publicly listed debt, shapes the bond return. This is therefore effective interest on a organization's long-term debt.
</em>
<em>Here equity risk premium approximation can be extremely imprecise, also fluctuating disorderly, depending on which framework is used.</em>
