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cluponka [151]
3 years ago
10

You have torn a tendon and are facing surgery to repair it. the surgeon explains the risks to you: the probability of infection

in such operations is 0.03, the probability the repair fails is 0.16, and the probability of both infection and failure is 0.01. what is the probability that the operation succeeds and is free from infection
Mathematics
1 answer:
skad [1K]3 years ago
5 0
P(most favorable outcome) = 1 -(0.03 +0.16 -0.01) = 0.82

_____
"repair fails" includes the "infection and failure" case, as does "infection". By adding the probability of "repair fails" and "infection", we count the "infection and failure" case twice. So, we have to subtract the probability of "infection and failure" from the sum of "repaire fails" and "infection" in order to count each bad outcome only once.

The probability of a good outcome is the complement of the probability of a bad outcome.
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Liula [17]

Answer:

True

Step-by-step explanation:

Quasi-dynamic is a framework which accounts for inertial effects. In this we determine the long term behavior of state. It can be used to identify industry analysis where the industry is in a static state. Quasi static is a thermo-dynamic process that remains in internal equilibrium.

3 0
3 years ago
State a true conclusion.
xxTIMURxx [149]

Answer:

The conclusion is "Plane R and Plane S form a line if they intersect."

Step-by-step explanation:

Consider the provided statements.

1) If two planes intersect, their intersection is a line.

2) Plane Rand plane S intersect.

  • If two points lie in a plane, then the line joining them lies in that plane.
  • If two planes intersect, then their intersection is a line.

For better understanding refer the figure:

There are two planes R and S, which intersect at the line l.

Since the given two planes intersect, the using the above fact we can say that their intersection is a line.

Thus, the conclusion is "Plane R and Plane S form a line if they intersect."

3 0
3 years ago
Help look at screenshot
ipn [44]
1/3 is the correct answer simplified
4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Perform the indicated operation 5 1/6 - 2 2/3
goldenfox [79]

Answer:

2½

Step-by-step explanation:

First find the Least Common Denominator [LCD], which is 6, then convert 5⅙:

5⅙ → 4 7⁄6

5 \frac{1}{6}  - 2 \frac{2}{3}  = 4 \frac{7}{6}  -  2 \frac{4}{6}  = 2 \frac{3}{6}  = 2 \frac{1}{2}

You see, we regrouped 1 from 5⅙ to make sure that the top mixed number had a higher value than the bottom mixed number, so it is much easier to work with.

I am joyous to assist you anytime.

7 0
3 years ago
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