Answer:
The answer is "D".
Explanation:
Since the value of b1 is negative, the regression line decreases as b1 increases
For a 1-point increase in an administrators rating, we estimate the administrators raise to decrease $2,000.
Answer: Wages are flexible if the economy is self-regulating.
Explanation:
Classical economists believe that the economy is self-regulating. This means that if the economy is not at equilibrium, it will return to equilibrium if it is left without interference.
For this to happen, inputs such as wages have to flexible to enable them to adjust to market conditions and thus take the Economy back to equilibrium.
For instance, if there is a recession, wages will reduce so that the prices that the producers can charge will reduce as well which will enable supply to match demand and bring the economy back to equilibrium.
Answer:
the gap between the poorest and richest segments of society in some OECD countries had widened.
Explanation:
A study published in 2011 by the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) noted that the gap between the poorest and richest segments of society in some Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) countries had widened.
Answer:
A, B and D
Explanation:
Expanding the money supply is an exercise of expansionary monetary policy.
This decision will first allow our tech startup to acquire cheaper loans and expand our operations, this expansion in operations will result in new employment opportunities and hence as a result, unemployment will be reduced assuming this is a general trend in the economy.
This decision also directly reflects an increased investment and hence the GDP on the whole and the investment part of GDP would both increase,
GDP = C + I + G + (X - M), where I = investment.
This change in macro economy will increase aggregate demand due to expansionary effects. Increase in imports is not conclusive as it may or may not happen depending upon the demand state.
Hope this helps.
Answer:
Bad debt expense (w/o allowance) = $2,875
Bad debt expense ( with allowance) = $2,675.
Explanation:
According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:
Net credit sales = $115,000
Uncollectible percentage = 2.5%
So, we can calculate the bad debt expense without Allowance for doubtful accounts by using following method:
Bad debt expense ( W/o allowance) = $115,000 × 2.5%
= $2,875
After Allowance for doubtful expense
Bad debt expense = $2,875 - $200
= $2,675
