Answer:
C. $11.03
Explanation:
We need to first compute the firm's value which is shown below.
Firm's value = Free cash flow ÷ (Weighted average cost of capital - Growth rate)
Firm's value = $4.7 million ÷ ( 10.8% - 3.7%)
= $4.7 million ÷ 7.1%
= $66,197,183
Stock price = (Firm value - Debt) ÷ Number of shares
= ($66,197,183 - $33,100,000) ÷ 3,000,000
= $33,097,183 ÷ 3,000,000
= $11.03
Answer: The stereotypes have led Dawn to seek out companies that value Gender Egalitarianism. Therefore the answer is TRUE. Option A.
Explanation: Gender Egalitarianism simply refers to the phenomenon whereby there is equality among both sexes, and a situation in which both sexes, regardless of gender, possess equal access to opportunities without discrimination.
Gender Egalitarianism can also be referred to as Gender Equality.
In a society with high Gender Egalitarianism, the following can be observed:
1. Women are key decision makers.
2. Women have attained the same level of education as men.
3. Women are in more positions of authority.
4. Women are segregated less in the workplace.
Answer:
The stock A is most valuable as the fair value of Stock A is $100 which is more than the fair value of Stock B ( $83.33) and Stock C ($34.28).
Explanation:
to calculate the fair price of the stocks, we will use the DDM or dividend discount model. The DDM bases the value of a stock on the present value of the expected future dividends from the stock.
Let r be the discount rate which is 10%.
a.
The stock is like a perpetuity as it pays a constant dividend after equal intervals of time and for an indefinite period.
The price of this stock can be calculated as,
Price or P0 = Dividend / r
P0 = 10 / 0.1 = $100
b.
The constant growth model of DDM can be used to calculate the price of this stock as its dividends are growing at a constant rate forever.
P0 = D1 / r - g
Where,
- D1 is the dividend for the next period
- r is the cost of equity or discount rate
- g is the growth rate in dividends
P0 = 5 / (0.1 - 0.04)
P0 = $83.33
c.
The price of this stock can be calculated using the present of dividends.
P0 = 5 / (1+0.1) + 5 * (1+0.2) / (1+0.1)^2 + 5 * (1+0.2)^2 / (1+0.1)^3 +
5 * (1+0.2)^3 / (1+0.1)^4 + 5 * (1+0.2)^4 / (1+0.1)^5 + 5 * (1+0.2)^5 / (1+0.1)^6
P0 = $34.28
Answer:
- 34 coupons.
- $33.75
Explanation:
The coupons are the interest payments the bond makes.
1. The bond has a term of 17 years and coupons are to be paid semi-annually.
This means that for every year, 2 coupon payments will be made.
In 17 years therefore:
= 17 * 2
= 34 coupons
2. The interest on this bond is 6.75% in a year. The coupon is however, semi-annual. Payment per coupon will therefore be half of the yearly rate:
= 6.75% * 1,000 * 1/2
= $33.75
