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Andrej [43]
3 years ago
9

Equipment was purchased for $300,000. Freight charges amounted to $14,000 and there was a cost of $40,000 for building a foundat

ion and installing the equipment. It is estimated that the equipment will have a $60,000 salvage value at the end of its 5-year useful life. Depreciation expense each year using the straight-line method will be:________. a. $70,800 b. $58,800 c. $49,200 d. $48,000
Business
1 answer:
aksik [14]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

b)

Annual Depreciation expense= $58,800

Explanation:

<em>According to International Accounting standards(IAS) 16 property plan and equipment (PPE), the cost of an asset is the purchase cost plus other costs of bringing it to the intended working conditions.</em>

So we will add the purchase cost to installation  , freight charges.

Cost of assets = 300,000 + 14,000 + 40,000 =$354,000

Annual depreciation = (Cost - Scrap Value)/ Number of years

                                   = (354,000 - 60,000)/5

                                 =$58,800

Annual Depreciation expense= $58,800

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If a good is normal, then a decrease in price will cause a substitution effect that is?
denis-greek [22]

Explanation:

If a good is normal, then a decrease in price will cause a substitution effect that is The correct answer was: a. positive and an income effect that is positive.

8 0
1 year ago
35. The interest rate charged by large banks in London to lend money among themselves is called _________. A. the prime rate B.
GREYUIT [131]

Answer:

The correct option is D

Explanation:

LIBOR termed as London Interbank Offered Rate, which is the rate of interest at which the major banks globally lend to another bank in the international market for the loans which are short- term in nature.

LIBOR, serves or states as the accepted key interest rate globally , which states the cost of borrowing among the banks.

Therefore, LIBOR, is the term which is the interest rate charged by banks in London to lend money among themselves.

7 0
3 years ago
An outdoor barbecue grill manufacturer uses a standard costing system in which standard machine-hours (MHs) is the measure of ac
Zina [86]

Answer:

Fixed overhead volume variance $ 2801.3

Explanation:

<em>The difference between budgeted Fixed Overheads and Applied Fixed Overheads gives the Fixed overhead volume variance.</em>

Given Data

(Planned )Denominator level of activity 4,600MHs

Fixed overhead cost$50,140

Actual hours 5,000MHs

Standard hours allowed for the actual output 4,743MHs

Actual total fixed manufacturing overhead cost$48,690

<em>We need Budgeted Fixed overhead and we can find it by dividing the fixed costs by the denominator level of activity and multiplying it with actual hours.</em>

<em>We  also need  to find Applied Fixed overhead  by dividing the fixed costs by the denominator level of activity and multiplying it with  standard  hours for actual output.</em>

<u>Calculations</u>

Budgeted Fixed Overhead= ($50,140 /4,600MHs )* 5,000MHs

                                              = $ 54,500

Applied Fixed overhead= ($50,140 /4,600MHs )* 4743MHs

                                         = $ 51698.7

Formula

Fixed overhead volume variance=Budgeted Fixed overhead- Applied Fixed overhead

Fixed overhead volume variance= $ 54,500- $ 51698.7= $ 2801.3

5 0
3 years ago
Potter &amp; Lopez Inc. just sold a bond with 50 warrants attached. The bonds have a 20-year maturity and an annual coupon of 12
AfilCa [17]

Answer:

$3.76

Explanation:

Calculation of the implied value of each warrant

First step is to find the straight-debt value

Straight-debt value:

N = 20

I/YR = 15

PMT = −120

FV = −1000

PV = $812.22

Using this formula

Total value = Straight-debt value + Warrant value

Where,

Total value =$1,000

Straight-debt value=$812.22

Warrant=50

Let plug in the formula

$1,000 = $812.22 + 50

Second step is to find the warrant value

Warrant value= ($1,000 −$812.22)/50

=$187.78/50

=$3.7556

Approximately $3.76

Therefore the implied value of each warrant will be $3.76

4 0
3 years ago
An investor goes short against the box to lock in a gain on a stock position that has been held for 11 months. 3 months later, t
dybincka [34]

Answer: I and III

Explanation:

From the question, we are informed that investor goes short against the box to lock in a gain on a stock position that has been held for 11 months. 3 months later, the investor closes the short position with his long shares.

The options that are true are:

• The holding period of the underlying stock stopped counting as of the short sale date.

• The gain will be taxed as a long term capital gain.

6 0
3 years ago
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