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4 years ago

If p is false, q is true, and r is true, why is the value of (p v ~q) v r

Mathematics

1 answer:

pychu [463]4 years ago

3 0

$q=T\implies \neg q=F$

$p=F\,\land\,\neg q=F\implies p\,\lor\,\neg q=F$

$r=T\implies (p\,\lor\,\neg q)\,\lor\,r=T$

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victus00 [196]

Answer:

Greater:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Answer:

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KIM [24]

Answer:

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3 years ago

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LUCKY_DIMON [66]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

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MA_775_DIABLO [31]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

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4 years ago