Question

If p is false, q is true, and r is true, why is the value of (p v ~q) v r

Answer 1

$q=T\implies \neg q=F$

$p=F\,\land\,\neg q=F\implies p\,\lor\,\neg q=F$

$r=T\implies (p\,\lor\,\neg q)\,\lor\,r=T$