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Mamont248 [21]
3 years ago
13

The multiplication property of equality could be used to solve which of the following equations?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Evgesh-ka [11]3 years ago
7 0

Multiplication property of equality can be used to solve: \frac{b}{-2} = 18

Step-by-step explanation:

First of all, lets define the multiplication property of equality

The multiplication property of equality states that if one side of an equation is multiplied with any number the other side is also multiplied with the number.

Given equations are:

(x+2)(x-2) = 0\\m+7 = -12\\\frac{b}{-2} = 18\\-3+y = 7

By observing the equations we can see that only third equation has a fraction in it so it has to be multiplied with -2 for solution

\frac{b}{-2} * - 2 = 18*-2\\b = -36

Hence,

Multiplication property of equality can be used to solve: \frac{b}{-2} = 18

Keywords: Linear equation, properties

Learn more about linear equations at:

  • brainly.com/question/3375830
  • brainly.com/question/3398261

#LearnwithBrainly

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Help! If you know this can you tell me how to do it?
aleksandr82 [10.1K]

Answer:

c

Step-by-step explanation:

Here's how this works:

Get everything together into one fraction by finding the LCD and doing the math.  The LCD is sin(x) cos(x).  Multiplying that in to each term looks like this:

[sin(x)cos(x)]\frac{sin(x)}{cos(x)}+[sin(x)cos(x)]\frac{cos(x)}{sin(x)} =?

In the first term, the cos(x)'s cancel out, and in the second term the sin(x)'s cancel out, leaving:

\frac{sin^2(x)}{sin(x)cos(x)}+\frac{cos^2(x)}{sin(x)cos(x)}=?

Put everything over the common denominator now:

\frac{sin^2(x)+cos^2(x)}{sin(x)cos(x)}=?

Since sin^2(x)+cos^2(x)=1, we will make that substitution:

\frac{1}{sin(x)cos(x)}

We could separate that fraction into 2:

\frac{1}{sin(x)}×\frac{1}{cos(x)}

\frac{1}{sin(x)}=csc(x)  and  \frac{1}{cos(x)}=sec(x)

Therefore, the simplification is

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5 0
4 years ago
How many solutions does the following equation have?
Tom [10]

Answer:

Answer choice D, Infinitely many solutions.

Step-by-step explanation:

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4 years ago
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jarptica [38.1K]

Answer:

a) 30 cm

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Step-by-step explanation:

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4 0
3 years ago
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4 0
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Read 2 more answers
How would you solve this? Are there any steps to take?
Genrish500 [490]
You just have to find what x is. Pretend there isn't the signs and think of it as = signs. Then whatever u do on one side do it to all of them
7 0
4 years ago
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