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Natali [406]
3 years ago
8

If f(x) = 2x and g(x)=1/x, what is the domain of (fg)(x)

Mathematics
1 answer:
bearhunter [10]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The domain is all real numbers except the number zero

Step-by-step explanation:

we have

f(x)=2x

g(x)=\frac{1}{x}

we know that

(fg)(x)=f(g(x))=2(\frac{1}{x})

Remember that

The denominator cannot be equal to zero

so

The domain is all real numbers except the number zero

In Interval notation the domain is

(-∞,0) ∪ (0,∞)

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