If f(x) = 2x and g(x)=1/x, what is the domain of (fg)(x)

Mathematics

1 answer:

bearhunter [10]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

The domain is all real numbers except the number zero

Step-by-step explanation:

we have

$f(x)=2x$

$g(x)=\frac{1}{x}$

we know that

$(fg)(x)=f(g(x))=2(\frac{1}{x})$

Remember that

The denominator cannot be equal to zero

The domain is all real numbers except the number zero

In Interval notation the domain is

(-∞,0) ∪ (0,∞)

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