<em>Look</em><em> </em><em>at</em><em> </em><em>the</em><em> </em><em>attached</em><em> </em><em>picture</em><em>⤴</em>
<em>Hope</em><em> </em><em>this</em><em> </em><em>will</em><em> </em><em>help</em><em> </em><em>u</em><em>.</em><em>.</em><em>.</em><em>.</em>
The expression in company B represents that is is in arithmetic progression where first term is 42000 and common difference is 1800 . So we have to use the formula of sum of n terms which is

Where a is the first term, n is the nth term, d is the common difference
On substituting there values,we will get

= 15(84000+52200) = 15*136200 =2043000
And for company A, it is

Difference between them =2043000-2002500= 40500
So the correct option is the second option .
We have to calculate the probability of picking a 4 and then a 5 without replacement.
We can express this as the product of the probabilities of two events:
• The probability of picking a 4
,
• The probability of picking a 5, given that a 4 has been retired from the deck.
We have one card in the deck out of fouor cards that is a "4".
Then, the probability of picking a "4" will be:

The probability of picking a "5" will be now equal to one card (the number of 5's in the deck) divided by the number of remaining cards (3 cards):

We then calculate the probabilities of this two events happening in sequence as:

Answer: 1/12
Answer:
18 bags of skittles
Step-by-step explanation:
19-7.25-0.5x=2.75
=> -0.5x=-9
=> x=18
Answer:
Infinite solutions
Step-by-step explanation:
All solutions are possible.