The physician performs a pelvic exam, which reveals the presence of an abnormal thin, watery vaginal discharge and inflammation
of the cervix. The physician then palpates the abdomen (examines by touch and pressure) and finds that the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries are enlarged and tender. The physician takes a swab sample of the cervix and sends it to the laboratory to determine the causal organism. Light microscopy and simple staining of the sample in the lab reveal an organism with a very unique life cycle. The organism is classified as gram-negative, but it stains very poorly compared to other classic gram-negative STI pathogens. The stain shows both a nonreplicating, extracellular infectious elementary body and a replicating, noninfectious reticulate body inside mucosal cells from the cervical epithelium swab. Based on the symptoms and these new laboratory findings, which of the following would be the most likely diagnosis for the patient?
The options are missing but I according to the description provided is chlamydia.
Explanation:
Chlamydia is caused by bacteria that can infect the lymph nods, the eyes or the genitals. In the case of the patient, the bacteria-infected her genital tract. The symptoms are similar to the ones of a urinary tract infection but there is inflammation of the pelvis and urethra.
The Life cycle of the chlamydia bacteria is different from other bacterias. The bacteria attaches to a host cell, the elementary body, that enters the cell with an inclusion. Once that the elementary body is inside, the cell the inclusion grows. Then the bacteria starts to replicate causing the cell to rupture and release the new bacterias.
