Simple....
you have:

--->>>

or in decimal form... 1,160,000.
Thus, your answer.
We can solve for
first by rewriting the system of first-order ODEs as a single second-order ODE in
:
Taking the derivative of the first ODE gives

while solving for
gives

Then




which is linear with constant coefficients, so it's trivial to solve; the corresponding homogeneous ODE

has characteristic equation

with root
(multiplicity 2), so the characteristic solution is

For the non-homogeneous ODE, assume a particular solution of the form

Substituting these into the ODE gives

Then the general solution for
is

From here, we find

so that


<span>C. Lines FB and BA are perpendicular to each other.
[ Look at the sign of Perpendicular ]
Hope this helps!</span>
Let us compute first the probability of ending up an odd number when rolling a dice. A dice has faces with numbers 1 up to 6. The odd numbers within that is 3 (1, 3 and 5). Therefore, each dice has a probability of 3/6 or 1/2. Then, you use the repeated trials formula:
Probability = n!/r!(n-r)! * p^r * q^(n-r), where n is the number of tries (n=6), r is the number tries where you get an even number (r=0), p is the probability of having an even face and q is the probability of having an odd face.
Probability = 6!/0!(6!) * (1/2)^0 * (1/2)^6
Probability = 1/64
Therefore, the probability is 1/64 or 1.56%.
Answer:
your answer is c hope this helps let me know if im wrong or nah
Step-by-step explanation: