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ratelena [41]
3 years ago
5

Debt management ratios measure the extent to which a firm uses financial leverage and the degree of safety afforded to . They in

clude the: (1) Debt-to-capital ratio, (2) Times interest earned ratio (TIE), and (3) EBITDA coverage ratio. The first ratio analyzes debt by looking at the firm's , while the last two ratios analyze debt by looking at the firm's . The debt-to-capital ratio measures the percentage of funds provided by . Its equation is: High debt ratios that exceed the industry average may make it costly for a firm to borrow additional funds without first raising more . The times interest earned ratio measures the extent to which income can decline before the firm is unable to meet its annual payments. Its equation is: EBIT is used as the numerator because is paid with pretax dollars—the firm's ability to pay is not affected by taxes. The EBITDA coverage ratio is: This ratio is more complete than the TIE ratio because it recognizes that depreciation and amortization are not expenses, so these amounts are available to service debt, and lease payments and principal repayments are fixed payments.
Business
1 answer:
Ket [755]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The 1st ratio examines debt by observing at the company's balance sheet, whereas the other two ratios examine debt by observing at the company's income statement. Thus, debt-to-total-assets ratio processes the %age of assets delivered by debt in order to fund total assets. The computed equation will be: (Total long term debt + Total short term debt) / Total assets). The high debt ratios that overdo the business average might create it expensive for a company to borrow the extra funds without initial raising for more equity. The period’s interest received ratio processes the degree to which the income can fall before the company is incapable to meet its yearly interest expense expenditures. However, the computed equation is EBIT / total interest payable: EBIT is used as the numerator as it is funded with pretax dollars.  The company’s capability to pay will not be affected by the taxes. The EBITDA analysis ratio is EBITDA / total interest: This proportion is more comprehensive than the TIE proportion because it identifies that depreciation and payback are not expenses, so these aggregates are accessible to service debt, and lease expenses and principal refunds are fixed expenses.

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EB10.
Mrrafil [7]

Answer:

                                                                        Debit                   Credit

Work in process inventory                            $15,000

Manufacturing overhead clearing account                              $15,000                                    

Explanation:

First determine the amount of applied overhead which can be calculated as follows

Applied overhead=Rate per machine hour*number of hours

Applied overhead=$5*3,000=$15,000

The journal entry for the applied overhead shall be made as follow

                                                                        Debit                   Credit

Work in process inventory                            $15,000

Manufacturing overheads clearing account                              $15,000                                    

8 0
3 years ago
The process of applying controls to reduce the risks to an organization’s data and information systems is called ____________
defon

Answer:

The correct answer is: Risk Control.

Explanation:

Risk Control is the steps a firm takes to find possible losses and mitigate them. In the process, the company may find risk factors within the production process that are technical -inherent to the equipment, or non-technical -employees unsatisfied with wages that could lead to a strike, for instance. Risk control aims to set several actions that could avoid further problems in the prejudice of the organization.

4 0
3 years ago
Explain how a country with few natural resources can still have economic growth.
valina [46]
They can import and then industrialize. 
5 0
3 years ago
MC Qu. 36-46 (Algo) Answer the question...
Afina-wow [57]

Answer:

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6 0
3 years ago
On January 1 of the current year, Barton Corporation issued 11% bonds with a face value of $99,000. The bonds are sold for $94,0
Bogdan [553]

Answer:

$11,880

Explanation:

Calculation to determine The bond interest expense for the year ended December 31 is

First step

Semiannual interest=($99,000 * 0.11 * 6/12)

Semiannual interest= $5445

Second step

Semi-annual discount amortization

Semi-annual discount amortization=($99,000 - $94,050)/5*/12

Semi-annual discount amortization=($4950 / 5)*6/12

Semi-annual discount amortization= 495

Third step

Semiannual interest expense=(5445 + 495)

Semiannual interest expense = $5940

Now let determine the bond interest expense

Bond interest expense =($5940 * 2)

Bond interest expense = $11880

Therefore The bond interest expense for the year ended December 31 is $11,880

3 0
2 years ago
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