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ratelena [41]
3 years ago
5

Debt management ratios measure the extent to which a firm uses financial leverage and the degree of safety afforded to . They in

clude the: (1) Debt-to-capital ratio, (2) Times interest earned ratio (TIE), and (3) EBITDA coverage ratio. The first ratio analyzes debt by looking at the firm's , while the last two ratios analyze debt by looking at the firm's . The debt-to-capital ratio measures the percentage of funds provided by . Its equation is: High debt ratios that exceed the industry average may make it costly for a firm to borrow additional funds without first raising more . The times interest earned ratio measures the extent to which income can decline before the firm is unable to meet its annual payments. Its equation is: EBIT is used as the numerator because is paid with pretax dollars—the firm's ability to pay is not affected by taxes. The EBITDA coverage ratio is: This ratio is more complete than the TIE ratio because it recognizes that depreciation and amortization are not expenses, so these amounts are available to service debt, and lease payments and principal repayments are fixed payments.
Business
1 answer:
Ket [755]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The 1st ratio examines debt by observing at the company's balance sheet, whereas the other two ratios examine debt by observing at the company's income statement. Thus, debt-to-total-assets ratio processes the %age of assets delivered by debt in order to fund total assets. The computed equation will be: (Total long term debt + Total short term debt) / Total assets). The high debt ratios that overdo the business average might create it expensive for a company to borrow the extra funds without initial raising for more equity. The period’s interest received ratio processes the degree to which the income can fall before the company is incapable to meet its yearly interest expense expenditures. However, the computed equation is EBIT / total interest payable: EBIT is used as the numerator as it is funded with pretax dollars.  The company’s capability to pay will not be affected by the taxes. The EBITDA analysis ratio is EBITDA / total interest: This proportion is more comprehensive than the TIE proportion because it identifies that depreciation and payback are not expenses, so these aggregates are accessible to service debt, and lease expenses and principal refunds are fixed expenses.

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Full-service advertising agency refers to
sdas [7]

Answer:

An advertising agency that provides the most complete range of services including market research, media selection, copy development, artwork and production.

Explanation:

Advertising can be described as the various strategies used to create an awareness of a product to the public. The main objective of advertising is to persuade potential customers to purchase the product.

Full service advertising offers a complete range of services which include carrying out an extensive market research on the product, a good media management, excellent design and packaging of the product.

Hiring the services of full advertising agencies creates room for a team of specialists to work together inorder to boost the sales of the product. It also provides enough time for the management of an organisation to figure out new ways to strategize their business.

8 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is a journal entry to recognize the disposal​ value? A. Manufacturing Overhead Control XXX Workminusinmin
adell [148]

Answer:

B. Materials Control XXX Work in minus Process Control XXX

Explanation:

The journal entry is as follows

Material Control XXX

           To Work in process control

(Being the disposal value is recognized)

While recording this given entry we debited the material control account and credited the work in process control so that the correct posting could be done

Hence, the correct option is B.

8 0
3 years ago
You have just received a windfall from an investment you made in a​ friend's business. He will be paying you at the end of this​
ohaa [14]

Answer:

a. $80,318.70

b. $97,568.57

Explanation:

Here is the full question :

You have just received a windfall from an investment you made in a​ friend's business. She will be paying you $ 15 comma 555 at the end of this​ year, $ 31 comma 110 at the end of next​ year, and $ 46 comma 665 at the end of the year after that​ (three years from​ today). The interest rate is 6.7 % per year. a. What is the present value of your​ windfall? b. What is the future value of your windfall in three years​ (on the date of the last​ payment)?

Present value is the sum of discounted cash flows

Present value can be calculated using a financial calculator

Cash flow in year 1 = $ 15,555

Cash flow in year 2 = $31,110

Cash flow in year 3 =  $ 46,665

I = 6.7%

Present value = $80,318.70

The formula for calculating future value:

FV = P (1 + r)^n

FV = Future value  

P = Present value  

R = interest rate  

N = number of years  

$80,318.70(1.067)^3 = $97,568.57

3 0
3 years ago
The _____ of an organizational life cycle is characterized by growth and the expansion of organizational resources.
Verizon [17]

Answer: The _youth_ of an organizational life cycle is characterized by growth and the expansion of organizational resources.

Explanation:

7 0
2 years ago
A machine costing $450,000 with a four-year life and an estimated $30,000 salvage value is installed by Lux Company on January 1
Tasya [4]

Answer:

$112,500

Explanation:

Depreciation expense using the double declining method = Depreciation factor x cost of the asset

Depreciation factor = 2 x (1/useful life)  

Depreciation expense in year 1 = 2/4 x $450,000 = $225,000

Book value at the beginning of year 2 =  $450,000 - $225,000 =  $225,000

Depreciation expense in year 2 = 2/4 x $225,000 = $112,500

4 0
2 years ago
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