We are given chance of winning a game is 1/50.
In decimal form 1/50 could be written as 0.02.
So, for each game, the chance of winning is 0.02.
Therefore, chance of loss would be = 1 -(0.02) = 0.98.
Chance of loss of 50 independent games = 0.98*0.98*0.98*0.98...... upto 50 times, that is (0.98)^50.
The chance of winning at least once = 1 - (0.98)^50.
We got (0.98)^50 = 0.36417
Therefore, 1 - (0.98)^50 = 1 - 0.36417.
We get 0.63583.
Therefore, correct option is c. 0.6358.
Answer:
y= -10x+200, x is equal to a week
Step-by-step explanation:
formula y=mx+b
we lose 10$ a week so the slope is -10 and we start with a base amount of 200
so plug those numbers in and you have y= -10x+200
Step-by-step explanation:
1. f(-4)=-3x+2
x=-4
f(-4)=-3(-4)+2
f-4=-3-4+2
f-4=-5
f-4/-4=-5/-4
f=5/4
Answer:
£1=€1040
£=?more
800×1040
=£832000
Step-by-step explanation:
you should multiple 1040 and 800 to get
832000
Answer:
74 inches
Step-by-step explanation:
P = 1/2(b1+b2)h
= 1/2(15+22)4
= 1/2(37)4
= 1/2(148)
= 74'