Both claims are false. In fact, $a$ and $\frac{1}{a}$ are one the multiplicative inverse of the other. This means, by definition of multiplicative inverse, that

$a \cdot \dfrac{1}{a} = 1 \quad\forall a \in \mathbb{R}$

So, it doesn't matter if $a$ is positive or negative: the multiplication of one number and its inverse will always be 1: for example,

$(-2) \cdot \dfrac{1}{-2} = \dfrac{-2}{-2} = 1$

Similarly, when you multiply two number, the sign of the product depends on the sign of the factors as follows:

$(+) \cdot (+) = (+)$
$(+) \cdot (-) = (-)$
$(-) \cdot (+) = (-)$
$(-) \cdot (-) = (+)$

So, the multiplication of two negative numbers is a positive number.

8 0

3 years ago

Help please I need this ASAP

seropon [69]

Ohhhh I know it’s the second one hope that helps

3 0

3 years ago

A set of positive and negative rational numbers is shown.

Troyanec [42]

Answer:1 3/4 < 1 7/8
Showing the workThe least common denominator is 8Comparing 14/8 and 15/8:
14/8 < 15/8 ... ..... ... ....therefore1 3/4 < 1 7/8

5 0

3 years ago

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