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tangare [24]
3 years ago
6

How can we reduce the ripple factor of a bridge recitifier from 0.48 to 0.1 approximately ?

Physics
1 answer:
padilas [110]3 years ago
4 0
U can try to use capacitor , the value of capacitor depends on circuit

ripple factors signifies the ac components, by def its ratio of rms value of ac component to value of dc component
so in order to reduce use of a capacitor which denies the sudden changes in voltage, which is the charracteristic of Ac signals

hope this helps
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3 years ago
If the voltage in a circuit is 24 V and the current is 2 A, what is the total power in the circuit?
Drupady [299]
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5 0
3 years ago
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In the reaction 2H, + O, → H,0, what coeficient should be placed in front of H,0 to balance the reaction?
Vilka [71]
It’s water mate-
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8 0
3 years ago
Please help, I do not understand
Anettt [7]
I think the key here is to be exquisitely careful at all times, and
any time we make any move, keep our units with it.

We're given two angular speeds, and we need to solve for a time.

Outer (slower) planet:
Angular speed =  ω  rad/sec
Time per unit angle =  (1/ω)  sec/rad
Angle per revolution = 2π rad
Time per revolution = (1/ω sec/rad) · (2π rad) = 2π/ω seconds .

Inner (faster) planet:
Angular speed =  2ω  rad/sec
Time per unit angle =  (1/2ω)  sec/rad
Angle per revolution = 2π rad
Time per revolution = (1/2ω sec/rad) · (2π rad) = 2π/2ω sec = π/ω seconds.

So far so good.  We have the outer planet taking 2π/ω seconds for one
complete revolution, and the inner planet doing it in only π/ω seconds ...
half the time for double the angular speed.  Perfect !

At this point, I know what I'm thinking, but it's hard to explain.
I'm pretty sure that the planets are in line on the same side whenever the
total elapsed time is something like a common multiple of their periods.
What I mean is:

They're in line, SOMEwhere on the circles, when

     (a fraction of one orbit) = (the same fraction of the other orbit)    
AND
     the total elapsed time is a common multiple of their periods.

Wait !  Ignore all of that.  I'm doing a good job of confusing myself, and
probably you too.  It may be simpler than that.  (I hope so.)  Throw away
those last few paragraphs.

The planets are in line again as soon as the faster one has 'lapped'
the slower one ... gone around one more time.  
So, however many of the longer period have passed, ONE MORE
of the shorter period have passed.  We're just looking for the Least
Common Multiple of the two periods.

      K (2π/ω seconds)  =  (K+1) (π/ω seconds)

                     2Kπ/ω   =    Kπ/ω + π/ω

Subtract  Kπ/ω :    Kπ/ω = π/ω

Multiply by  ω/π :      K  =  1

(Now I have a feeling that I have just finished re-inventing the wheel.)

And there we have it:

     In the time it takes the slower planet to revolve once,
     the faster planet revolves twice, and catches up with it.
    
     It will be  2π/ω  seconds before the planets line up again.
    
     When they do, they are again in the same position as shown
     in the drawing.

To describe it another way . . . 

     When Kanye has completed its first revolution ...

     Bieber has made it halfway around.

     Bieber is crawling the rest of the way to the starting point while ...

     Kanye is doing another complete revolution.

     Kanye laps Bieber just as they both reach the starting point ...

     Bieber for the first time, Kanye for the second time.


You're welcome.  The generous bounty of 5 points is very gracious,
and is appreciated.  The warm cloudy water and green breadcrust
are also delicious.
5 0
2 years ago
What is the change in potential energy if the distance separating the electron and proton is increased to 1.0 nm?
Vlada [557]

Answer:

Ep=-2.3*10^{-19}J

Explanation:

The change in potential energy can be expressed as:

Ep=K.\frac{q1.q2}{r}

where K is a constant with a value of 9*10^{9}\frac{N.m^{2}}{C^{2}}, q1 and q2 are the charges of the proton and the electron and r is the distance between them.

The charge for the proton is +1.6*10^{-19}C and the charge for the electron is -1.6*10^{-19}C.

Converting r=1.0nm to m:

1.0nm*\frac{1*10^{-9}m}{1.0nm}=1*10^{-9}m

Replacing values:

Ep=9*10^{9}\frac{N.m^{2}}{C^{2}}.\frac{(+1.6*10^{-19}C).(-1.6*10^{-19}C)}{1*10^{-9}m}

Ep=-2.3*10^{-19}J

5 0
2 years ago
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