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baherus [9]
3 years ago
8

PLEASE HELP QUICKLY!! 7th grade math!

Mathematics
2 answers:
Serga [27]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

I am actaully learning this right now!

Step-by-step explanation: Hope this helps!

1) Multiply the numerators.

Multiply  the Denominators

Simplify

   

2) When working with whole numbers you have to make it improper.

Multiply the denominator by the whole number and whatever you get you to add the numerator with it and that is how you make it improper.

balu736 [363]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

19 and 29/32 or 19.90625

Step-by-step explanation:

So the 1st Way: We could simplify it and make them into improper fraction in a way like this:

13/4 * 49/8

We can then just multiply the top row and the bottom row:

13 * 49 = 637

4 * 8 = 32

637/32 = 19 and 29/32

The 2nd Way: We could literally add 6 and 1/8, 3.25 times

(I'm so sorry this is a way lol but I couldn't think of another)

6.125 + 6.125 + 6.125 + 6.125(0.25) = 18.375 + 1.53125 = 19.90625 :P

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dezoksy [38]
Use the following formula to find the answer to this question: 

S * Q + M * Q = P 

Representations: 

S = The amount of points for short-answer questions. 

M = The a<span>mount of points for m</span>ultiple-choice questions. 

Q = Number of questions for each of the type of questions that add up to the total number of questions on the test (20 questions). 

P = Total points on the test. 

Since there is a total of 50 points on the 20 question test, you would need to divide up the amount of questions there are for each of the type there are on the test, short-answer, and multiple-choice. 

3 * Q + 1 * Q = P 

Now find how many of the type of questions there are out of 20 questions on the test that would add up to the total number of points on the test. 

3 * Q + 1 * Q = 50 

(15 + 5 = 20 questions on the test, 15 and 5 can be used for the number of questions for each type of question on the test). 

3 * 15 + 1 * 5 = 50 

45 + 5 = 50 

50 = 50 

So, your total number of multiple choice questions are: 5. 
And, your total number of short answer questions are: 15. 

I would go with D. for your answer. I may be wrong. 

<em>I hope this helps. </em>

<em>~ Notorious Sovereign</em>
5 0
3 years ago
Estimate by rounding each number to the nearest hundredth and then subtract 360.727 - 89.852
kykrilka [37]
Hi there!

The correct answer for you is 270.88.

To round to the hundreth's place (.0<u>1</u><u />), you need to take the number in the thousand's place (.00<u>1</u>), and determine if the number needs to go up or down.

If the number in the thousand's place is <u>greater</u> than 4, then the number goes up.

360.72<u>7</u> --> This means that the hundreth's number goes up to 3.

If the number in the thousand's place is <u>lesser</u> than 5, then that number stays the same.

89.85<u>2</u> --> This means that the hundreth's number stays the same.

After you round, then just subtract:

360.73 - 89.85 = 270.88.

I hope this helps!
Brady
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3 years ago
A circular hedge surrounds a sculpture on a square base. The radius of the hedge is 6x. The side length of the square sculpture
andrey2020 [161]
Hi, thank you for posting your question here at Brainly.

Since the hedge is surrounding the square base, the area of the base can be determined by subtracting the area of the base from the hedge.

A = pi*r^2 - (4x)^2
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I hope I was able to answer your question. Have a good day.
6 0
3 years ago
The spinner below shows 5 equally sized slices. Tammy spun the dial 25 times and got the following results. Fill in the table be
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Answer:

a) 4/25, or 0.16, or 16%

b) 1/5, or 0.2, or 20%

c) The first option - the theoretical and experimental values should become closer the more trials that are performed.

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a) 4 of Tammy's 25 spins landed on black, so the experimental probability is 4/25, or 0.16, or 16%.

b) The spinner is split into 5 equal sections. Assuming it is fair, the chance of landing in any given section for a single spin is 1/5, or 0.2, or 20%.

c) The theoretical and experimental values should get closers the more trials you do.

For example, consider 1 coin flip vs 100. The theoretical probability of landing on a given side of a coin is 1/2, or 0.5, or 50%. With a single flip, your experimental probability will either be 0% or 100%, both off of the theoretical probability by 50%. After 100 flips however, the experimental and theoretical probabilities will be much closer to each other.

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Answer:

1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
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